The Air Navigation Order 2009

Status:

This is the original version (as it was originally made).

Article 2

SCHEDULE 1Revocations

SI number	Title	Extent of revocation
2005/1970	The Air Navigation Order 2005	The whole instrument
2006/1384	The Civil Aviation (Safety of Third-Country Aircraft) Regulations 2006	Regulations 14 to 17
2006/2316	The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2006	The whole instrument
2007/274	The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2007	The whole instrument
2007/3467	The Air Navigation (Amendment)(No.2) Order 2007	The whole instrument
2008/1782	The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2008	The whole instrument
2009/41	The Operation of Air Services in the Community Regulations 2009	Regulation 37
2009/1742	The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2009	The whole instrument

Articles 3(3), 16(2), 18(3) and 128(7)

SCHEDULE 2A and B Conditions and categories of certificate of airworthiness

PART A

SECTION 1A Conditions

1. A non-EASA aircraft registered in the United Kingdom may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 or 3 subject to the conditions contained in paragraphs 4 to 7 when either—

(a)it does not have a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom; or

(b)the certificate of airworthiness or the certificate of validation issued under article 18 issued for the aircraft has ceased to be in force by virtue of any of the matters specified in article 19.

2. The purposes in the case of an aircraft falling within sub-paragraph 1(a) are that the aircraft may fly only so as to enable it to—

(a)qualify for the issue, renewal or validation of a certificate of airworthiness after an application has been made for such issue, renewal or validation, or carry out a functional check of a previously approved modification of the aircraft;

(b)proceed to or from a place at which any inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of, or the installation of equipment in, the aircraft is to take place or has taken place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), after any relevant application has been made, or at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of, the aircraft is to be undertaken; or

(c)proceed to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be or has been stored.

3. The purposes in the case of an aircraft falling within sub-paragraph 1(b) are that the aircraft may fly only so as to enable it to—

(a)proceed to a place at which any maintenance or inspection required by article 19(1)(b) is to take place; or

(b)proceed to a place at which any maintenance, inspection or modification required by article 19(1)(c), (d) or (e) is to take place and for which flight the CAA has given permission in writing; or

(c)carry out a functional check, test or in-flight adjustment in connection with the carrying out in a manner approved by the CAA of any overhaul, repair, previously approved modification, inspection or maintenance required by article 19.

4. The aircraft, including any modifications, must be of a design which previously has been approved by the CAA, or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA, as being compliant with a standard accepted by the CAA as appropriate for the issue of a national certificate of airworthiness.

5. The aircraft and its engines must be certified as fit for flight by the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence granted under this Order, being a licence which entitles the holder to issue that certificate or by a person approved by the CAA for the purpose of issuing certificates under this condition, and in accordance with that approval.

6. The aircraft must carry the minimum flight crew specified in any certificate of airworthiness or validation or flight manual which has previously been in force under this Order for the aircraft, or is or has previously been in force for any other aircraft of identical design.

7. The aircraft must not carry any persons or cargo except persons performing duties in the aircraft in connection with the flight or persons who are carried in the aircraft to perform duties in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph 2 or 3.

8. For the purpose of this Schedule ‘a previously approved modification’ means a modification which has previously been approved by the CAA or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA for that aircraft or another aircraft of the same type.

SECTION 2B Conditions

1. A non-EASA aircraft may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 subject to the conditions set out in paragraphs 3 to 6 whether or not it is registered in accordance with article 3(1) when there is not in force—

(a)in the case of an aircraft which is so registered, a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; or

(b)in the case of an aircraft which is not so registered, either a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom or a permit to fly issued by the CAA for that aircraft.

2. The purposes referred to in paragraph 1 are—

(a)experimenting with or testing the aircraft (including any engines installed on the aircraft) or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft;

(b)enabling the aircraft to qualify for the issue or validation of a certificate of airworthiness or the approval of a modification of the aircraft or the issue of a permit to fly;

(c)demonstrating and displaying the aircraft, any engines installed on the aircraft or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft with a view to its sale or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment;

(d)demonstrating and displaying the aircraft to employees of the operator;

(e)the giving of flying training to or the testing of flight crew employed by the operator or the training or testing of other persons employed by the operator and who are carried or are intended to be carried under sub-paragraph 6(a);

(f)proceeding to or from a place at which any experiment, inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of the aircraft, the installation of equipment in the aircraft, demonstration, display or training is to take place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e); or

(g)proceeding to or from a place at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of the aircraft is to be undertaken.

3. The flight must be operated by a person approved by the CAA for the purposes of these conditions and subject to any additional conditions which may be specified in such an approval.

4. If not registered in the United Kingdom—

(a)the aircraft must be marked in a manner approved by the CAA for the purposes of these conditions; and

(b)articles 34, 39, 43(3), 86, 87, 112, 150 and 156 must be complied with in relation to the aircraft as if it were registered in the United Kingdom.

5. No person may act as pilot in command of the aircraft except a person approved for the purpose by the CAA.

6. The aircraft must not carry any cargo, or any persons other than the flight crew except the following—

(a)persons employed by the operator who during the flight carry out duties or are tested or receive training in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph 2;

(b)persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft for carrying out during the flight duties in connection with a purpose so specified;

(c)persons approved by the CAA under article 244 as qualified to supply reports for the purposes of article 18;

(d)persons other than those carried under the preceding provisions of this paragraph who are carried in the aircraft in order to carry out a technical evaluation of the aircraft or its operation;

(e)cargo which comprises equipment carried in connection with a purpose specified in sub-paragraph 2(f); or

(f)persons employed by the operator or persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft in connection with a purpose specified in sub-paragraph 2(f) which persons have duties in connection with that purpose.

PART BCategories of certificate of airworthiness and purposes for which aircraft may fly

Category of certificate of airworthiness	Purposes for which the aircraft may fly
Standard	Any purpose
Special Category	Any purpose, other than commercial air transport or public transport, specified in the certificate of airworthiness but not including the carriage of passengers unless expressly permitted

SCHEDULE 3Classification and marking of aircraft and dealer certification

Articles 6(1)(b) and 255(3)

PART 1Classification of aircraft

Col. 1	Col. 2	Col. 3
(1) Lighter than air aircraft	(a) Non-power driven	(i) Free Balloon (ii) Captive Balloon
	(b) Power driven	(i) Airship
(2) Heavier than air aircraft	(a) Non-power driven	(i) Glider (ii) Kite
	(b) Power driven flying machines	(i) Aeroplane (Landplane) (ii) Aeroplane (Seaplane)
		(iii) Aeroplane (Amphibian)
		(iv) Aeroplane (Self-launching Motor Glider)
		(v) Powered Lift (Tilt Rotor)
		(vi) Rotorcraft
		(aa) Helicopter
		(bb) Gyroplane

Article 6(5)(b) and (6)

PART 2Conditions in aircraft dealer’s certificate

1. The operator of the aircraft must be the registered owner of the aircraft and the holder of an aircraft dealer’s certificate granted under this Order.

2. The aircraft may fly only for the purpose of—

(a)testing the aircraft;

(b)demonstrating the aircraft with a view to the sale of that aircraft or of other similar aircraft;

(c)proceeding to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be tested or demonstrated as aforesaid, or overhauled, repaired or modified;

(d)delivering the aircraft to a person who has agreed to buy, lease or sell it; or

(e)proceeding to or from a place for the purpose of storage.

3. Without prejudice to article 86 the operator of the aircraft must be satisfied before the aircraft takes off that the aircraft is in every way fit for the intended flight.

4. The aircraft may fly only within the United Kingdom.

Article 10(2)

PART 3Nationality and registration marks of aircraft registered in the United Kingdom

General

1.—(1) The nationality mark of the aircraft is the capital letter ‘G’ in Roman character.

(2) The registration mark is a group of four capital letters in Roman character assigned by the CAA on the registration of the aircraft.

(3) The letters must be without ornamentation.

(4) A hyphen must be placed between the nationality mark and the registration mark.

(5) The nationality and registration marks must be displayed to the best advantage, taking into consideration the constructional features of the aircraft and must always be kept clean and visible.

(6) The letters constituting each group of marks must—

(a)be of equal height; and

(b)together with the hyphen, all be of the same single colour which must clearly contrast with the background on which they appear.

(7) The nationality and registration marks must also be inscribed on a fire-proof metal plate affixed in a prominent position—

(a)in the case of a microlight aeroplane, either on the fuselage or car or on the wing;

(b)in the case of a balloon, on the basket or envelope; or

(c)in the case of any other aircraft on the fuselage or car.

(8) The nationality and registration marks must be painted on the aircraft, or affixed to the aircraft by any other means ensuring a similar degree of permanence, in the manner specified in paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 of this Part.

Position and size of marks – heavier than air aircraft

2.—(1) The position and size of marks on heavier than air aircraft (excluding kites) must be as specified in this paragraph.

(2) On such aircraft having a fixed wing surface—

(a)the marks must appear on the lower horizontal surface of the wing structure and on the port wing unless they extend across the whole surface of both wings;

(b)so far as is possible the marks must be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings;

(c)the tops of the letters must be towards the leading edge of the wing;

(d)the height of the letters must be—

(i)subject to sub-paragraph (ii), at least 50 centimetres;

(ii)if the wings are not large enough for the marks to be 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances.

(3) On the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and vertical tail surfaces of such aircraft—

(a)the marks must also appear either—

(i)on each side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure), and must, in the case of fixed wing aircraft be located between the wings and the horizontal tail surface; or

(ii)on the vertical tail surfaces;

(b)when located on a single vertical tail surface, the marks must appear on both sides;

(c)when located on multi-vertical tail surfaces, the marks must appear on the outboard sides of the outer-surfaces;

(d)subject to sub-paragraphs (f) and (g), the height of the letters constituting each group of marks must be at least 30 centimetres;

(e)if one of the surfaces authorised for displaying the required marks is large enough for those marks to be 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (g)) and the other is not, marks of 30 centimetres in height must be placed on the largest authorised surface;

(f)if neither authorised surface is large enough for marks of 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (g)), marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances must be displayed on the larger of the two authorised surfaces;

(g)marks on the vertical tail surfaces must be such as to leave a margin of at least five centimetres along each side of the vertical tail surface.

(4) On rotary wing aircraft where owing to the structure of the aircraft the greatest height practicable for the marks on the side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure) is less than 30 centimetres—

(a)the marks must also appear on the lower surface of the fuselage as close to the line of symmetry as practicable;

(b)they must be placed with the tops of the letters towards the nose;

(c)the height of the letters constituting each group of marks must be—

(i)subject to sub-paragraph (ii), at least 50 centimetres; or

(ii)if the lower surface of the fuselage is not large enough for the marks to be of 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances.

(5) Wherever in this paragraph marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances are required, that height must be such as is consistent with compliance with paragraph 4 of this Part.

Position and size of marks – airships and free balloons

3.—(1) The position and size of marks on airships and free balloons must be as specified in this paragraph.

(2) In the case of airships the marks must be—

(a)placed on each side of the airship; and

(b)placed horizontally either on the hull near the maximum cross-section of the airship or on the lower vertical stabiliser.

(3) In the case of free balloons, the marks must be in two places on diametrically opposite sides of the balloon.

(4) In the case of both airships and free balloons—

(a)the side marks must be so placed as to be visible from the sides and from the ground; and

(b)the height of the letters must be at least 50 centimetres.

Width, spacing and thickness of marks

4.—(1) For the purposes of this paragraph—

(a)‘standard letter’ means any letter other than the letters I, M and W;

(b)the width of each standard letter and the length of the hyphen between the nationality mark and the registration mark must be two thirds of the height of a letter;

(c)the width of the letters M and W must be neither less than two thirds of their height nor more than their height; and

(d)the width of the letter I must be one sixth of the height of the letter.

(2) The thickness of the lines comprising each letter and hyphen must be one sixth of the height of the letters forming the marks.

(3) (a) Each letter and hyphen must be separated from the letter or hyphen which it immediately precedes or follows by a space equal to either one quarter or one half of the width of a standard letter.

(b)Each such space must be equal to every other such space within the marks.

Articles 28(6) and 37(2)

SCHEDULE 4Aircraft equipment

1.—(1) Every aircraft of a description specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 4 which must carry equipment specified in this Schedule must be provided, if flying in the circumstances specified in the second column of the said Table, with adequate equipment.

(2) For the purpose of this paragraph the expression ‘adequate equipment’ means, subject to sub-paragraphs (3) and (4), the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the third column of that Table.

(3) If the aircraft is flying in a combination of such circumstances, the scales of equipment are not on that account required to be duplicated.

(4) Equipment carried in an aircraft that is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft is to be taken into account in determining whether this Schedule is complied with for that aircraft.

2.—(1) For the purposes of the Table in paragraph 4 flying time in relation to a helicopter or gyroplane is to be calculated on the assumption that it is flying in still air at the speed specified in the relevant flight manual as the speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water.

(2) In this Schedule ‘day’ means the time from half an hour before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level.

3. The following items of equipment are not required to be of a type approved by EASA or the CAA—

(a)the equipment referred to in Scale A(2);

(b)first aid equipment and handbook, referred to in Scale A(3);

(c)time-pieces, referred to in Scale F;

(d)torches, referred to in Scales G and K;

(e)whistles and survivor locator lights, referred to in Scale H;

(f)sea anchors, referred to in Scales J and K;

(g)rocket signals, referred to in Scale J;

(h)equipment for mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring aircraft on the water, referred to in Scale J;

(i)paddles, referred to in Scale K;

(j)food and water, referred to in Scales K, U and V;

(k)first aid equipment, referred to in Scales K, U and V;

(l)stoves, cooking utensils, snow shovels, ice saws, sleeping bags and Arctic suits, referred to in Scale V;

(m)megaphones, referred to in Scale Y.

4. Table

Description of Aircraft	Circumstances of Flight	Scale of Equipment Required
(1) Gliders	(a) flying for purposes other than public transport or aerial work; and flying by night	A(2)
	(b) flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work and	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7), D and F(1)
	(i) flying by night	C and G
	(ii) carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres	B(8) and (9)
(2) Aeroplanes	(c) flying for purposes other than commercial air transport or public transport and	A(1) and (2) and B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)
	(i) flying by night	C, D, G(2) and (3) and GG
	(ii) flying under Instrument Flight Rules
	(aa) outside controlled airspace	D
	(bb) within Class A, B or C airspace	E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(cc) within Class D and E airspace	E and F
	(iii) carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres	B(8) and (9)
	(iv) flying at a height of 13,000 ft or more above mean sea level	L1 or L2
	(v) flying over water
	(aa) beyond gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing	H
	(bb) at a distance of more than 10 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed away from land suitable for making an emergency landing	KK(1) or KK(2)
	(vi) flying over areas which have been designated by the State concerned as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, and where	KK(2)
	(aa) in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U (except U(1))
	(bb) in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V (except V(1))
	(vii) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K(1), (2) and (3)
	(viii) with a certificate of airworthiness	A(3) and (5)
	(d) flying for the purpose of public transport and	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7), D and F(1)
	(i) flying under Instrument Flight Rules except flights outside controlled airspace in the case of aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of not more than 1150kg	E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(ii) flying by night
	(aa) in the case of aeroplanes which have a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 1150kg	C and G
	(bb) in the case of aeroplanes which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 1150kg	C and G, E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(iii) flying over water beyond gliding distance from land	H
	(iv) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the aeroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(v) flying over water
	(aa) in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit becoming inoperative, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser or	H and K
	(bb) in the case of all other aeroplanes, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser	H and K
	(vi) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 2002	KK(1) or (2)
	(vii) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 2002	KK(2)
	(viii) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K
	(ix) flying at a height of 10,000 ft or more above mean sea level
	(aa) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989	L1 or L2
	(bb) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989	L2
	(x) on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met	M
	(xi) carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres	B(8) and (9)
	(xii) on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person	N
	(xiii) on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Q and Y(1), (2) and (3)
	(xiv) on all flights by a pressurised aircraft	R
	(xv) flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U
	(xvi) flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V
	(xvii) flying at an altitude of more than 49,000ft	W
(3) Turbine-jet aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg or pressurised aircraft having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 11,400kg	flying for the purpose of public transport	O
(4) Turbine-engined aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg and piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 27,000kg except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraphs (5) or (6);
(a) which are operated by an the holder of a national air operator’s certificate; or an EU-OPS air operator certificate; or	flying on any flight	P
(b) which are public transport aeroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 2	flying on any flight	P
(5) Public transport aeroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes for which an application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 2 except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraph (6);
(a) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg but of not more than 11,400kg; or	flying on any flight	S(1)
(b) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 11,400kg but not more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any flight	S(2)
(c) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 27,000kg but not more than 230,000kg; or	flying on any flight	S(3)
(d) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 230,000kg	flying on any flight	S(3)
(6) Public transport aeroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 2
(a) for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of not more than 5700kg, are powered by two or more turbine engines and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9; or	flying on any flight	S(4)
(b) for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg but not more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any flight	S(5)
(c) for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 27,000kg	flying on any flight	S(6)
(7) Aerial work and private aeroplanes for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 27,000kg	flying on any flight	S(6)
(8) Public transport aeroplanes
(a) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any flight	T
(b) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 230,000kg and for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness; or	flying on any flight	T
(c) having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 27,000kg which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate on or after 1st April 1971 (or 1st January 1970 in the case of an aeroplane having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 230,000kg) for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 2	flying on any flight	T
(9) Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30	flying for the purpose of public transport	X(1)
Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg but not more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 but not more than 30	flying for the purpose of public transport except when flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator’s certificate	X(1)
(10) Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness	flying for purposes other than commercial air transport or public transport	X(1) or X(2)
(11) Aeroplanes
(a) powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 22,700kg; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(b) having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(c) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1)
(d) having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(e) powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 22,700kg; or	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(f) first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1958 and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(2) Aeroplanes;
(a) powered by one or more turbine jets	flying on any flight other than commercial air transport	AA
(b) powered by one or more turbine propeller engines and having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg and first issued with a certificate of airworthiness in the United Kingdom on or after 1st April 1989	flying on any flight other than commercial air transport	AA
(12) Public transport aeroplanes	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Y(4)
(13) Helicopters and Gyroplanes	(c) flying for purposes other than public transport and	A(1), (2), (3) and (5) and B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)
	(i) flying by day under Visual Flight Rules
	(aa) with the surface in sight	D
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E
	(ii) flying by day under Instrument Flight Rules
	(aa) with the surface in sight	E
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight outside controlled airspace	E with E(2) duplicated
	(cc) when the surface is not in sight within controlled airspace	E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated and F
	(iii) flying by night;
	(aa) with the surface in sight	C, E, G(3), (5) and (6)
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight outside controlled airspace	C, E with E(2) duplicated, G(3), (5) and (6)
	(cc) when the surface is not in sight within controlled airspace	C, E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F, G(3), (5) and (6)
	(iv) flying at a height of 13,000 ft or more above mean sea level	L1 or L2
	(v) flying over water
	(aa) beyond autorotational gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing	H
	(bb) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the helicopter or gyroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(cc) at a distance of more than 10 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed away from land suitable for making an emergency landing	KK(1) or KK(2)
	(vi) flying over areas which have been designated by the State concerned as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, and where	KK(2)
	(aa) in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U (except U(1))
	(bb) in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V (except V(1))
	(d) flying for the purpose of public transport and	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) and F(1) and F(4)
	(i) flying by day under Visual Flight Rules
	(aa) with the surface in sight	D
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E
	(ii) flying by day under Instrument Flight Rules
	(aa) with the surface in sight	E
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3) and (5)
	(iii) flying by night with the surface in sight
	(aa) in circumstances where one pilot is required	C, E with E(2) duplicated and either E(4) duplicated or a radio altimeter, F(2), (3), (5) and G
	(bb) in circumstances where two pilots are required	C, E, F(2), (3), and (5) and G for each pilot’s station
	(iv) flying by night when the surface is not in sight	C, E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3), (5) and G
	(v) flying over water
	(aa) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 2 or 3 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 or B when beyond auto-rotational gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing	E and H
	(bb) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the helicopter or gyroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(cc) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 or 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 when beyond 10 minutes flying time from land	E, H, K and T
	(dd) for more than a total of three minutes in any flight	EE
	(ee) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 or 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 which is intended to fly beyond 10 minutes flying time from land or which actually flies beyond 10 minutes flying time from land, on a flight which is either in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas) or is on a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator’s certificate, when in either case the weather reports or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate that the sea temperature will be less than plus 10ºC during the flight or when any part of the flight is at night	I
	(vi) flying on Performance Class 1 or 2 operations over water beyond 10 minutes flying time from land and not required to comply with sub-paragraph (ix)	KK(2)
	(vii) flying on Performance Class 3 operations beyond auto-rotational or safe forced landing distance from land	KK(2)
	(viii) flying over land areas which have been designated by the State concerned as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult	KK(2)
	(ix) flying on Performance Class 1 or 2 operations over water in a hostile environment at a distance from land corresponding to more than ten minutes flying time at normal cruising speed in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas)	KK(3)
	(x) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K
	(xi) flying at a height of 10,000ft or more above mean sea level
	(aa) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989	L1 or L2
	(bb) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989	L2
	(xii) on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met	M
	(xiii) on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person	N
	(xiv) on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Y(1), (2) and (3)
	(xv) flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U
	(xvi) flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V
	(xvii) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine and operating in a hostile environment	SS(8)
(14) Helicopters and Gyroplanes;		l
(a) having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any helicopter or gyroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to a helicopter or gyroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(b) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1)
(c) which are public transport helicopters or gyroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport helicopters or gyroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 2; and
(i) which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 2730kg but not more than 7000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or both	flying on any flight	SS(1) or SS(3)
(ii) which have a maximum total weight authorised of more than 7000kg	flying on any flight	SS(2) or SS(3)

5. The scales of equipment indicated in the Table at paragraph 4 are as follows—

Scale A
(1)
Spare fuses for all electrical circuits the fuses of which can be replaced in flight, consisting of 10 per cent of the number of each rating or three of each rating, whichever is the greater.
(2)
Maps, charts, codes and other documents and navigational equipment necessary, in addition to any other equipment required under this Order, for the intended flight of the aircraft including any diversion which may reasonably be expected.
(3)
First aid equipment of good quality, sufficient in quantity, having regard to the number of persons on board the aircraft, and including the following—
(a)
roller bandages;
(b)
triangular bandages;
(c)
adhesive plaster;
(d)
absorbent gauze or wound dressings;
(e)
cotton wool or wound dressings;
(f)
burn dressings;
(g)
safety pins;
(h)
haemostatic bandages or tourniquets;
(i)
scissors;
(j)
antiseptic;
(k)
analgesic and stimulant drugs;
(l)
splints, in the case of aeroplanes the maximum total weight authorised of which exceeds 5700kg; and
(m)
a handbook on first aid.
(4)
In the case of a flying machine used for the public transport of passengers in which, while the flying machine is at rest on the ground, the sill of any external door intended for the disembarkation of passengers, whether normally or in an emergency—
(a)
is more than 1.82 metres from the ground when the undercarriage of the machine is in the normal position for taxiing; or
(b)
would be more than 1.82 metres from the ground if the whole or any part of the undercarriage should collapse, break or fail to function,
apparatus readily available for use at each such door consisting of a device or devices which will enable passengers to reach the ground safely in an emergency while the flying machine is on the ground, and can be readily fixed in position for use.
(5)
A hand fire extinguisher for each enclosed passenger and crew compartment, so installed that at least one extinguisher is conveniently located for use by a member of the flight crew.
Scale AA
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), an altitude alerting system capable of alerting the pilot on approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or descent, by a sequence of visual and aural signals in sufficient time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude and when deviating above or below that preselected altitude, by a visual and an aural signal.
(2)
If the system becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly, until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the system to be repaired or replaced.
Scale B
(1)
If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft is 2730kg or less, for every pilot’s seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot’s seat, either a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt without a diagonal shoulder strap for which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(2)
If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 2730kg, either a safety harness for every pilot’s seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot’s seat, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness.
(3)
For every seat in use (not being a seat referred to in paragraphs (1), (2), (5) and (6)) a safety belt with or without one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(4)
In addition, and to be attached to or secured by the equipment required in paragraph (3) or (6), a child restraint device for every child under the age of two years on board.
(5)
On all flights for the public transport of passengers by aircraft, for each seat for use by cabin crew who are required to be carried under this Order, a safety harness.
(6)
On all flights in aeroplanes for which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st February 1989, the maximum total weight authorised of which is not more than 5700kg and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 9 or less, (otherwise than for seats referred to under paragraph (1) or (2)), a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness for each seat intended for use by a passenger.
(7)
If the commander cannot, from the commander’s own seat, see all the passenger seats in the aircraft, a means of indicating to the passengers that seat belts should be fastened.
(8)
Subject to paragraph (9), a safety harness for every seat in use.
(9)
In the case of an aircraft carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres consisting only of erect spinning, the CAA may permit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap to be fitted if it is satisfied that such restraint is sufficient for the carrying out of erect spinning in that aircraft and that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness in that aircraft.
Scale C
(1)
Equipment for displaying the lights required by Section 8 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2007(1).
(2)
Electrical equipment, supplied from the main source of supply in the aircraft, to provide sufficient illumination to enable the flight crew properly to carry out their duties during flight.
(3)
Unless the aircraft is equipped with radio, devices for making the visual signal specified in Rule 61 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2007 as indicating a request for permission to land.
Scale D
(1)
In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator.
(2)
In the case of any other flying machine either—
(a)
a turn indicator and a slip indicator; or
(b)
a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a gyroscopic direction indicator.
(3)
A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.
Scale E
(1)
In the case of—
(a)
a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator;
(b)
any other flying machine, a slip indicator and either a turn indicator or, at the option of the operator, an additional gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(2)
A gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(3)
A gyroscopic direction indicator.
(4)
A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.
Scale EE
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), a radio altimeter with an audio voice warning operating below a preset height and a visual warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
(2)
A helicopter flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator’s certificate may instead be equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio warning and a visual warning each capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
Scale F
(1)
A timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
(2)
A means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instrument is adequate.
(3)
A rate of climb and descent indicator.
(4)
A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature calibrated in degrees celsius.
(5)
If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 5700kg, two air speed indicators.
Scale G
(1)
In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane, landing lights consisting of two single filament lamps, or one dual filament lamp with separately energised filaments.
(2)
An electrical lighting system to provide illumination in every passenger compartment.
(3)
Either—
(a)
one electric torch for each member of the crew of the aircraft; or
(b)
one electric torch—
(i)
for each member of the flight crew of the aircraft; and
(ii)
affixed adjacent to each floor level exit intended for the disembarkation of passengers whether normally or in an emergency, provided that such torches must—
(aa)
be readily accessible for use by the crew of the aircraft at all times; and
(bb)
number in total not less than the minimum number of members of the cabin crew required to be carried with a full passenger complement.
(4)
In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane which has a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5700kg, means of observing the existence and build up of ice on the aircraft.
(5)
In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 or 2 operations or a gyroplane for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group A(2), either—
(a)
two landing lights both of which are adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane and one of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground on either side of the helicopter or gyroplane; or
(b)
one landing light or, if the maximum total weight authorised of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5700kg, one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments, or two single filament lights, each of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane, and two parachute flares.
(6)
In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 3 operations or a gyroplane for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group B—
(a)
one landing light and two parachute flares;
(b)
if the maximum total weight authorised of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5700kg, either one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments or two single filament landing lights, and two parachute flares; or
(c)
if the maximum total weight authorised of the helicopter or gyroplane is 5700kg or less and the flight is for a purpose other than public transport—
(i)
two landing lights, one of which is adjustable in flight so as to illuminate the ground in front of, below and on either side of the helicopter; or
(ii)
two landing lights in addition to the helicopter standard equipment, which must be adjusted so as to illuminate the ground in front of the helicopter.
Scale GG
A landing light.
Scale H
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), for each person on board, a lifejacket equipped with a whistle and survivor locator light.
(2)
Lifejackets constructed and carried solely for use by children under three years of age need not be equipped with a whistle.
Scale I
A survival suit for each member of the crew.
Scale J
(1)
Additional flotation equipment, capable of supporting one-fifth of the number of persons on board, and provided in a place of stowage accessible from outside the flying machine.
(2)
Parachute distress rocket signals capable of making, from the surface of the water, the pyrotechnical signal of distress specified in Rule 61 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2007 and complying with Part III of Schedule 15 to the Merchant Shipping (Life-Saving Appliances) Regulations 1980(3).
(3)
A sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring the flying machine on water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics.
Scale K
(1)
In the case of—
(a)
a flying machine, other than a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, liferafts sufficient to accommodate all persons on board;
(b)
a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, a minimum of two liferafts sufficient together to accommodate all persons on board.
(2)
Each liferaft must contain the following equipment—
(a)
means of maintaining buoyancy;
(b)
a sea anchor;
(c)
life-lines, and means of attaching one liferaft to another;
(d)
paddles or other means of propulsion;
(e)
means of protecting the occupants from the elements;
(f)
a waterproof torch;
(g)
marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;
(h)
means of making sea water drinkable, unless the full quantity of fresh water is carried as specified in sub-paragraph (i);
(i)
for each four or proportion of four persons the liferaft is designed to carry—
(i)
100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets; and
(ii)
(aa)
subject to sub-paragraph (bb), ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers or in any case in which it is not reasonably practicable to carry the quantity of water above specified, as large a quantity of fresh water as is reasonably practicable in the circumstances;
(bb)
in no case must the quantity of water carried be less than is sufficient, when added to the amount of fresh water capable of being produced by means of the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (h) to provide ½ litre of water for each four or proportion of four persons the liferaft is designed to carry; and
(j)
first aid equipment.
(3)
Items (2)(f) to (j) inclusive must be contained in a pack.
(4)
The number of survival beacon radio apparatus carried when the aircraft is carrying the number of liferafts specified in Column 1 of the following Table must be not less than the number specified in, or calculated in accordance with, Column 2.
Column 1 Column 2
Not more than 8 liferafts 2 survival beacon radio apparatus
For every additional 4 or proportion of 4 liferafts 1 additional survival beacon radio apparatus
Scale KK
(1)
A survival emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).
(2)
An automatic emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).
(3)
An automatically deployable emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).
(4)
The transmitter must be capable of operating in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, Volume III (Second Edition July 2007)(4) and transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
Scale L1 Part 1
(1)
In every flying machine which is provided with means for maintaining a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals throughout the flight in the flight crew compartment and in the compartments in which the passengers are carried—
(a)
in the event of a failure to maintain such pressure occurring in the circumstances specified in columns 1 and 2 of the Table set out in Part 2, a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use during the periods specified in column 3 of the Table, by the persons for whom oxygen is to be provided in accordance with column 4 of the Table; and
(b)
in every case where the flying machine flies above flight level 350, a supply of oxygen in a portable container sufficient for the simultaneous first aid treatment of two passengers,
together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(2)
In any other flying machine—
(a)
a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all the crew other than the flight crew and, if passengers are carried, by 10% of the number of passengers, for any period of more than 30 minutes during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 130; and the flight crew must be supplied with oxygen sufficient for continuous use for any period during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100; and
(b)
a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all persons on board for the whole time during which the flying machine flies above flight level 130,
together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(3)
The quantity of oxygen required for the purpose of complying with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this Part is to be computed in accordance with the information and instructions specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft under paragraph 1(h) of Part A of Schedule 8.

Column 1	Column 2
Not more than 8 liferafts	2 survival beacon radio apparatus
For every additional 4 or proportion of 4 liferafts	1 additional survival beacon radio apparatus

Scale L1 Part 2

Column 1 Vertical displacement of the flying machine in relation to flight levels	Column 2 Capability of flying machine to descend (where relevant)	Column 3 Period of supply of oxygen	Column 4 Persons for whom oxygen is to be provided
A. The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals in the control compartment and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100. B. The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 150. C. The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100, but not above flight level 150. X. The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual, to flight level 150 within six minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made. Y. The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual, to flight level 150 within four minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Above flight level 100	—	30 minutes or the period specified at A below whichever is the greater	In addition to any passengers for whom oxygen is provided as specified below, all the crew

Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300	Flying machine is either flying at or below flight level 150 or is capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified at X below	30 minutes or the period specified at A below whichever is the greater	10% of number of passengers

Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300	Flying machine is flying above flight level 150 and is not capable of descending and continuing to destination specified at X below	10 minutes or the period specified at B below whichever is the greater;	All passengers
		and
		30 minutes or the period specified at C below whichever is the greater	10% of number of passengers

Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350	Flying machine is capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified at Y below	30 minutes or the period specified at A below whichever is the greater	15% of number of passengers

Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350	Flying machine is not capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified at Y below	10 minutes or the period specified at B below whichever is the greater;	All passengers
		and
		30 minutes or the period specified at C below whichever is the greater	15% of passengers

Above flight level 350	—	10 minutes or the period specified at B below whichever is the greater;	All passengers
		and
		30 minutes or the period specified at C below whichever is the greater	15% of number of passengers

Scale L2
(1)
A supply of oxygen and the associated equipment to meet the requirements set out in Part 1 of this Scale in the case of unpressurised aircraft and Part 2 of this Scale in the case of pressurised aircraft.
(2)
The duration for the purposes of this Scale is whichever is the greater of—
(a)
that calculated in accordance with the operations manual before the commencement of the flight, being the period or periods which it is reasonably anticipated that the aircraft will be flown in the circumstances of the intended flight at a height where the said requirements apply, and in calculating the duration, account must be taken of—
(i)
in the case of pressurised aircraft, the possibility of depressurisation when flying above flight level 100;
(ii)
the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines;
(iii)
restrictions due to required minimum safe altitude;
(iv)
fuel requirement; and
(v)
the performance of the aircraft; or
(b)
the period or periods during which the aircraft is actually flown in the circumstances specified in those Parts.

Part 1 Unpressurised aircraft

(1)

When flying at or below flight level 100, nil.

(2)

When flying above flight level 100 but not above flight level 120—

	Supply for	Duration
	(a) Members of the flight crew	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100
	(b) Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers	For any continuous period of more than 30 minutes during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 120, the duration is the period by which 30 minutes is exceeded

(3)

When flying above flight level 120—

	Supply for	Duration
	(a) Members of the flight crew	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120
	(b) Members of the cabin crew and all passengers	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120

Part 2 Pressurised aircraft

(1)

When flying at or below flight level 100, nil.

(2)

When flying above flight level 100 but not above flight level 250—

	Supply for	Duration
	(a) Members of the flight crew	30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, whichever is the greater
	(b) Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers	(i) When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A below, 30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, whichever is the greater
		(ii) When the aircraft is not so capable, whenever the cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10,000 ft but is not more than 12,000 ft
	(c) Members of the cabin crew and all passengers	(i) When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A below, no requirement other than that at (2)(b)(i) of this Part of this Scale
		(ii) When the aircraft is not so capable and the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft, the duration is the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater

(3)

When flying above flight level 250—

	Supply for	Duration
A. The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain cabin pressurisation occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 120 within five minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
	(a) Members of the flight crew	2 hours or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, whichever is the greater
	(b) Members of the cabin crew	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, and a portable supply for 15 minutes
	(c) 10% of passengers	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft but is not more than 12,000 ft
	(d) 30% of passengers	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft but is not more than 15,000 ft
	(e) All passengers	If the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft, the duration is the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater
	(e) 2% of passengers or two passengers, whichever is the greater, being a supply of first aid oxygen which must be available for simultaneous first aid treatment of 2% or two passengers wherever they are seated in the aircraft	Whenever, after decompression, the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 8000 ft

Scale M
Equipment to prevent the impairment through ice formation of the functioning of the controls, means of propulsion, lifting surfaces, windows or equipment of the aircraft so as to endanger the safety of the aircraft.
Scale N
An intercommunication system for use by all members of the flight crew and including microphones, not of a hand-held type, for use by the pilot and flight engineer (if any).
Scale O
(1)
Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a radar set capable of giving warning to the pilot in command of the aircraft and to the co-pilot of the presence of cumulo-nimbus clouds and other potentially hazardous weather conditions.
(2)
A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable in flight so as to give the warning only to one pilot, if the aircraft is flying only to the place at which it first becomes reasonably practicable for the set to be repaired.
(3)
A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable in flight if—
(a)
the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate that cumulo-nimbus clouds or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, which can be detected by the set when in working order, are unlikely to be encountered on the intended route or any planned diversion from the route; or
(b)
the commander is satisfied that any such weather conditions will be encountered in daylight and can be seen and avoided; and
(c)
the aircraft is operated throughout the flight in accordance with any relevant instructions given in the operations manual.
Scale P
(1)
Subject to paragraphs (2) and (5), a flight data recorder which is capable of recording, by reference to a time-scale, the following data—
(a)
indicated airspeed;
(b)
indicated altitude;
(c)
vertical acceleration;
(d)
magnetic heading;
(e)
pitch attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(f)
engine power, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(g)
flap position; and
(h)
roll attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded.
(2)
Subject to paragraph (5), any aeroplane having a maximum total weight authorised of not more than 11,400kg may be provided with—
(a)
a flight data recorder capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (1); or
(b)
a four channel cockpit voice recorder.
(3)
Subject to paragraph (5), in addition, on all flights by turbine-powered aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 11,400kg, a four channel cockpit voice recorder.
(4)
The flight data recorder and cockpit voice recorder referred to above must be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident to the aeroplane.
(5)
An aeroplane is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) if, before take off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
Scale Q
If the maximum total weight authorised of the aeroplane exceeds 5700kg and it was first registered, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, on or after 1st June 1965, a door between the flight crew compartment and any adjacent compartment to which passengers have access, which door must be fitted with a lock or bolt capable of being worked from the flight crew compartment.
Scale R
(1)
For aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg—
(a)
equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the flight crew required to be carried by Part 5 for a period of not less than 15 minutes; and
(b)
if under Part 5 the minimum flight crew required to be carried is more than one and a member of the cabin crew is not required to be carried, portable equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight crew for a period of not less than 15 minutes.
(2)
For aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of not more than 5700kg—
(a)
either the equipment specified in paragraph (1); or
(b)
in the case of such aeroplanes which are restricted by virtue of the operator’s operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and are capable of descending as specified at paragraph (5), such equipment sufficient to protect the eyes only.
(3)
For—
(a)
aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5700kg, portable equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the cabin crew required to be carried by Part 5 for a period of not less than 15 minutes;
(b)
aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised of not more than 5700kg, subject to paragraph (4), the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (3)(a).
(4)
Sub-paragraph (3)(b) does not apply to such aeroplanes which are restricted by virtue of the operator’s operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and are capable of descending as specified at paragraph (5).
(5)
The aeroplane is capable of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane, to flight level 100 within four minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Scale S
(1)
Subject to paragraph (8), either a four channel cockpit voice recorder or a flight data recorder which complies with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)
the flight path;
(b)
attitude; and
(c)
the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting on it.
(2)
Subject to paragraph (8), a four channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)
the information specified in paragraph (1); and
(b)
use of VHF transmitters.
(3)
Subject to paragraph (8), a four channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)
the flight path;
(b)
attitude;
(c)
the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting on it;
(d)
the selection of high lift devices (if any) and airbrakes (if any);
(e)
the position of primary flying control and pitch trim surfaces;
(f)
outside air temperature;
(g)
instrument landing deviations;
(h)
use of automatic flight control systems;
(i)
use of VHF transmitters;
(j)
radio altitude (if any); and
(k)
the level or availability of essential AC electricity supply and cockpit warnings relating to engine fire and engine shut-down, cabin pressurisation, presence of smoke and hydraulic/pneumatic power supply.
(4)
Subject to paragraph (8), either a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder or a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable in either case of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)
the flight path;
(b)
speed;
(c)
attitude;
(d)
engine power;
(e)
outside air temperature;
(f)
configuration of lift and drag devices;
(g)
use of VHF transmitters; and
(h)
use of automatic flight control systems.
(5)
Subject to paragraph (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)
the flight path;
(b)
speed;
(c)
attitude;
(d)
engine power;
(e)
outside air temperature;
(f)
configuration of lift and drag devices;
(g)
use of VHF transmitters; and
(h)
use of automatic flight control systems.
(6)
Subject to paragraph (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)
the flight path;
(b)
speed;
(c)
attitude;
(d)
engine power;
(e)
outside air temperature;
(f)
instrument landing system deviations;
(g)
marker beacon passage;
(h)
radio altitude;
(i)
configuration of the landing gear and lift and drag devices;
(j)
position of primary flying controls;
(k)
pitch trim position;
(l)
use of automatic flight control systems;
(m)
use of VHF transmitters;
(n)
ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;
(o)
cockpit warnings relating to ground proximity; and
(p)
the master warning system.
(7)
Any cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder required to be carried by paragraphs (1) to (6) must be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.
(8)
An aircraft is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (6) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
Scale SS
(1)
A four channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last eight hours of its operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale the following matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—
(a)
flight path;
(b)
speed;
(c)
attitude;
(d)
engine power;
(e)
main rotor speed;
(f)
outside air temperature;
(g)
position of pilot’s primary flight controls;
(h)
use of VHF transmitters;
(i)
use of automatic flight controls (if any);
(j)
use of stability augmentation system (if any);
(k)
cockpit warnings relating to the master warning system; and
(l)
selection of hydraulic system and cockpit warnings of failure of essential hydraulic systems.
(2)
(a)
A four channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation; and
(b)
a flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 8 hours of its operation, being the data required to accurately determine by reference to a time scale the information specified in paragraph (1) together with the following matters in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—
(i)
landing gear configuration;
(ii)
indicated sling load force if an indicator is provided in the helicopter or gyroplane of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;
(iii)
radio altitude;
(iv)
instrument landing system deviations;
(v)
marker beacon passage;
(vi)
ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the helicopter or gyroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability; and
(vii)
main gear box oil temperature and pressure.
(3)
Subject to paragraphs (4) and (7), a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder which meets the following requirements—
(a)
in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (1) the flight data recorder must be capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (1) and retaining it for the duration specified in paragraph (1);
(b)
in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (2) the flight data recorder must be capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (2) and retaining it for the duration specified in paragraph (2); and
(c)
the cockpit voice recorder must be capable of recording and retaining at least the last hour of cockpit voice recording information on not less than three separate channels.
(4)
(a)
Subject to sub-paragraph (b), in any case when a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder specified at paragraph (3)(a) is required to be carried by or under this Order, the flight data recorder must be capable of retaining—
(i)
as protected data the data recorded during at least the last five hours of its operation or the maximum duration of the flight, whichever is the greater; and
(ii)
additional data as unprotected data for a period which together with the period for which protected data is required to be retained amounts to a total of eight hours.
(b)
The flight data recorder need not be capable of retaining the additional data specified in sub-paragraph (b) if—
(i)
other additional data is retained which relates to the period immediately preceding the period to which the required protected data relates or for such other period or periods as the CAA may permit under article 155(4)(b); and
(ii)
the other additional data is retained in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(5)
With the exception of flight data which it is expressly stated above may be unprotected, the cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane must be so constructed and installed that the data recorded (in this Scale referred to as ‘protected data’) would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.
(6)
Each cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane must have attached an automatically activated underwater sonar location device or an emergency locator radio transmitter.
(7)
A helicopter or gyroplane is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (3) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(8)
A vibration health monitoring system capable of monitoring the vibration of critical helicopter rotor and rotor drive system components.
Scale T
An underwater sonar location device except for those helicopters or gyroplanes which are required to carry equipment in accordance with Scale SS.
Scale U
(1)
One survival beacon radio apparatus.
(2)
Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.
(3)
For each four or proportion of four persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.
(4)
For each four or proportion of four persons on board, ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers.
(5)
First aid equipment.
Scale V
(1)
One survival beacon radio apparatus.
(2)
Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.
(3)
For each four or proportion of four persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.
(4)
For each four or proportion of four persons on board, ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers.
(5)
First aid equipment.
(6)
For every 75 or proportion of 75 persons on board, 1 stove suitable for use with aircraft fuel.
(7)
One cooking utensil, in which snow or ice can be melted.
(8)
Two snow shovels.
(9)
Two ice saws.
(10)
Single or multiple sleeping-bags, sufficient for the use of one-third of all persons on board.
(11)
One arctic suit for each member of the crew of the aircraft.
Scale W
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), cosmic radiation detection equipment calibrated in millirems per hour and capable of indicating the action and alert levels of radiation dose rate.
(2)
An aircraft is not required to carry the equipment if—
(a)
before take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable and it is not reasonably practicable to repair or replace it at the aerodrome of departure; and
(b)
the radiation forecast available to the commander of the aircraft indicates that hazardous radiation conditions are unlikely to be encountered by the aircraft on its intended route or any planned diversion from that route.
Scale X
(1)
Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class A, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including excessive closure rate to terrain, flight into terrain when not in landing configuration, excessive downward deviation from an instrument landing system glideslope, a predictive terrain hazard warning function and a visual display.
(2)
Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class B, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning function.
(3)
If the equipment becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the equipment to be repaired or replaced.
Scale Y
(1)
If the aircraft may carry more than 19 and less than 100 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, one portable battery-powered megaphone capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(2)
If the aircraft may carry more than 99 and less than 200 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, two portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(3)
If the aircraft may carry more than 199 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, three portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(4)
If the aircraft may carry more than 19 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness—
(a)
a public address system; and
(b)
an interphone system of communication between members of the flight crew and the cabin crew.
Scale Z
(1)
An emergency lighting system to provide illumination in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.
(2)
An emergency lighting system to provide illumination outside the aircraft sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft.
(3)
Subject to paragraph (4), an emergency floor path lighting system in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.
(4)
If the equipment specified in paragraph (3) becomes unserviceable the aircraft may fly or continue to fly in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Articles 28(7) and 39(2)

SCHEDULE 5Radio communication and radio navigation equipment to be carried in aircraft

1. Subject to paragraph 2, every aircraft which must carry equipment specified in this Schedule must be provided, when flying in the circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 3 of this Schedule, with the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the second column of that Table.

2.—(1) In the case of sub-paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (9)(d) and (10) of paragraph 3, the specified equipment need not be carried if the appropriate air traffic control unit permits flight to commence without that equipment and the aircraft complies with any instructions which the air traffic control unit may give in the particular case.

(2) An aircraft which is not a commercial air transport aeroplane or a public transport aircraft and which is flying in Class D or Class E airspace need not carry distance measuring equipment in accordance with paragraph (b) of Scale F when flying in the circumstances specified in sub-paragraph (1)(a) of paragraph 3.

(3) If an aircraft is flying in a combination of circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 3 the scales of equipment are not on that account required to be duplicated.

3. Table

Aircraft and Circumstances of Flight	Scale of Equipment Required
	A	B	C	D	E	F	G	H	J

(1) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace	A				E2	F
(b) flying within controlled airspace	A
(c) making an approach to landing at an aerodrome notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph							G
(d) flying within controlled airspace of Class A, B or C					E2
(2) All aircraft within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying at or above flight level 195	A
(b) flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph	A
(3) All aircraft (other than gliders, SLMGs and balloons) within the United Kingdom flying for the purpose of public transport					E2
(4) Before 6th April 2012, all gliders and SLMGs flying within the United Kingdom at or above flight level 195 except when flying within airspace notified as a Temporary Reserved Area-Gliding					E2
(5) On and after 6th April 2012, all gliders and SLMGs within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying at or above flight level 100 except when flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph					E2
(b) flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace					E2
(c) flying within controlled airspace of Class A, B or C except when flying within airspace notified as a Temporary Reserved Area (Gliding)					E2
(d) flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph					E2
(6) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying at or above flight level 245					E2	F
(b) flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph					E2
(c) flying at or above flight level 100					E2
(7) When flying under Instrument Flight Rules within airspace notified for the purposes of this paragraph—
(a) all aeroplanes having a maximum take-off weight authorised of not more than 5700kg and a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of not more than 250 knots					E2
(b) all rotorcraft					E2
(c) all aeroplanes having either a maximum take-off weight authorised of more than 5700kg or a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of more than 250 knots					E3
(8) All aircraft required to carry Scale E2 or E3 (9) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be—					EE
(a) flying for the purpose of public transport under Instrument Flight Rules—
(i) while making an approach to landing	A		C	D				H
(ii) on all other occasions	A		C					H
(b) multi-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules	A							H
(c) single-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules—
(i) over a route on which navigation is effected solely by visual reference to landmarks	A
(ii) on all other occasions	A	B
(d) flying under Instrument Flight Rules and not required to comply with paragraph (9)(a)	A
(10) All aircraft (other than gliders, SLMGs and balloons) registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be when flying for the purpose of public transport					E2
(11) All aeroplanes registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be, and all aeroplanes wherever registered when flying in the United Kingdom, powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight of more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30									J
(12) All aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight of more than 5700kg or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; and which are—
(a) registered in the United Kingdom and flying for the purpose of public transport; or									J
(b) registered in the United Kingdom and flying within the airspace of the member states of the European Civil Aviation Conference; or									J
(c) flying in the United Kingdom									J

4. The scales of radio communication and radio navigation equipment indicated in the Table at paragraph 3 are as follows—

Scale A
Radio communication equipment capable of maintaining direct two-way communication with the appropriate air traffic control units on the intended route using the frequencies notified or otherwise designated by the competent authority for that purpose.
Scale B
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including such equipment as may be prescribed.
Scale C
Radio communication equipment capable of receiving from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations meteorological broadcasts relevant to the intended flight.
Scale D
Radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals from one or more aeronautical radio stations on the surface to enable the aircraft to be guided to a point from which a visual landing can be made at the aerodrome at which the aircraft is to land.
Scale E2(5)
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Elementary Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
Scale E3
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Enhanced Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
Scale EE
The aircraft must, in the circumstances specified in paragraph 2.1.5.3 of Volume IV (Fourth Edition July 2007) of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, comply with the requirements for antenna diversity set out in that paragraph.
Scale F
Radio communication and radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated along the intended route including—
(a)
automatic direction finding equipment;
(b)
distance measuring equipment; and
(c)
VHF omni-range equipment.
Scale G
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to make an approach to landing using the Instrument Landing System.
Scale H
(1)
Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including—
(a)
automatic direction finding equipment;
(b)
distance measuring equipment;
(c)
duplicated VHF omni-range equipment; and
(d)
a 75 MHz marker beacon receiver.
(2)
An aircraft may fly notwithstanding that it does not carry the equipment specified in this Scale if it carries alternative radio navigation equipment or navigational equipment approved in accordance with article 37(9).
(3)
Where only one item of equipment specified in this Scale is unserviceable when the aircraft is about to begin a flight, the aircraft may nevertheless take off on that flight if—
(a)
it is not reasonably practicable for the repair or replacement of that item to be carried out before the beginning of the flight;
(b)
the aircraft has not made more than one flight since the item was last serviceable; and
(c)
the commander of the aircraft is satisfied that the flight can be made safely and in accordance with any relevant requirements of the appropriate air traffic control unit, taking into account the latest information available as to the route and aerodrome to be used (including any planned diversion) and the weather conditions likely to be encountered.
Scale J
An airborne collision avoidance system.

5. In this Schedule—

(a)“Airborne collision avoidance system” means an aeroplane system which—

(i)conforms to requirements prescribed for the purpose;

(ii)is based on secondary surveillance radar transponder signals;

(iii)operates independently of ground based equipment; and

(iv)is designed to provide advice and appropriate avoidance manoeuvres to the pilot in relation to other aeroplanes which are equipped with secondary surveillance radar and are in undue proximity;

(b)“Automatic direction finding equipment” means radio navigation equipment which automatically indicates the bearing of any radio station transmitting the signals received by such equipment;

(c)“Distance measuring equipment” means radio equipment capable of providing a continuous indication of the aircraft’s distance from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations;

(d)“Mode A” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for identity and surveillance with identity provided in the form of a four digit identity code;

(e)“Mode C” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for automatic pressure-altitude transmission and surveillance;

(f)“Secondary surveillance radar equipment” means such type of radio equipment as may be notified as being capable of—

(i)replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface; and

(ii)being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic control unit;

(g)“VHF omni-range equipment” means radio navigation equipment capable of giving visual indications of bearings of the aircraft by means of signals received from very high frequency omni-directional radio ranges.

Article 34

SCHEDULE 6Aircraft, engine and propeller log books

Aircraft log book

1. The following entries must be included in the aircraft log book—

(a)the name of the constructor, the type of the aircraft, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the date of the construction of the aircraft;

(b)the nationality and registration marks of the aircraft;

(c)the name and address of the operator of the aircraft;

(d)the date of each flight and the duration of the period between take-off and landing, or, if more than one flight was made on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of the periods between take-offs and landings on that day;

(e)subject to paragraph 2, detailed information about all maintenance work carried out on the aircraft or its equipment;

(f)subject to paragraph 2, detailed information about any defects occurring in the aircraft or in any equipment required to be carried by or under this Order, and of the action taken to rectify such defects including a reference to the relevant entries in the technical log or the approved record required by article 27(2) and (3); and

(g)subject to paragraph 2, detailed information about any overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications relating to the aircraft or any such equipment as aforesaid.

2. Entries are not required to be made under paragraphs 1(e), (f) and (g) for any engine or variable pitch propeller.

Engine log book

3. The following entries must be included in the engine log book—

(a)the name of the constructor, the type of engine, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the date of the construction of the engine;

(b)the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft in which the engine is fitted;

(c)the name and address of the operator of each such aircraft;

(d)either—

(i)the date of each flight and the duration of the period between take-off and landing or, if more than one flight was made on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of the periods between take-offs and landings on that day; or

(ii)the aggregate duration of periods between take-off and landing for all flights made by that aircraft since the immediately preceding occasion that any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or inspection was undertaken on the engine;

(e)detailed information about all maintenance work done on the engine;

(f)detailed information about any defects occurring in the engine, and of the rectification of such defects, including a reference to the relevant entries in the technical log or the approved record required by article 27(2) and (3); and

(g)detailed information about all overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications relating to the engine or any of its accessories.

Variable pitch propeller log book

4. The following entries must be included in the variable pitch propeller log book—

(a)the name of the constructor, the type of propeller, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the date of the construction of the propeller;

(b)the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft, and the type and number of each engine, to which the propeller is fitted;

(c)the name and address of the operator of each such aircraft;

(d)either—

(e)detailed information about all maintenance work done on the propeller;

(f)detailed information about any defects occurring in the propeller, and of the rectification of such defects, including a reference to the relevant entries in the technical log or the approved record required by article 27(2) and (3); and

(g)detailed information about any overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications relating to the propeller.

Articles 64 to 71 and 78

SCHEDULE 7Flight crew of aircraft – licences, ratings, qualifications and maintenance of licence privileges

PART AFlight crew licences

SECTION 1United Kingdom Licences

SUB-SECTION 1Aeroplane pilots

Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age – 17 years

No maximum period of validity

Privileges:

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane of any of the types or classes specified or otherwise falling within an aircraft rating included in the licence.

(2) The holder may not—

(a)fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transport, public transport or aerial work except in accordance with paragraph (3);

(b)receive any remuneration for services as a pilot on a flight except in accordance with paragraph (4);

(c)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane—

(i)on a flight outside controlled airspace if the flight visibility is less than three km;

(ii)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome traffic zone notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph; or

(iii)out of sight of the surface;

(d)unless the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes) or a night qualification (aeroplane) fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night;

(e)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;

(f)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules; or

(g)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers unless—

(i)within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same type or class; and

(ii)if such a flight is to be carried out at night and the licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane), at least one of those take-offs and landings has been at night.

(3) (a) The holder may fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment provided that, in the case of instruction, the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating, class rating instructor rating, flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating.

(b)The holder may fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of—

(i)towing a glider in flight; or

(ii)a flight for the purpose of dropping of persons by parachute,

in either case in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the holder of the licence and any person carried in the aircraft or in any glider towed by the aircraft are members.

(4) The holder may receive remuneration for services as a pilot on a flight if—

(a)the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating, a flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating which entitles the holder to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes or SLMGs; and

(b)the remuneration is for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (3)(a) in a microlight aeroplane or a SLMG.

Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes).

(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (7), the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is flying on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.

(3) The holder may not—

(a)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport if the holder has less than 400 hours of flying experience as pilot in command of aeroplanes other than SLMGs or microlight aeroplanes;

(b)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport if its maximum total weight authorised exceeds 2300kg;

(c)fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey;

(d)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport except a flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome;

(e)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport after attaining the age of 60 years unless the aeroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane;

(f)unless the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes) or a night qualification (aeroplane) fly such an aeroplane at night;

(g)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane—

(i)on a flight outside controlled airspace if the flight visibility is less than three km;

(ii)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome traffic zone notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph; or

(iii)out of sight of the surface;

(h)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;

(i)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules; or

(j)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers unless—

(i)within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same type or class; and

(ii)if the flight is to be undertaken at night and the licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane), at least one of those take-offs and landings has been at night.

(4) Subject to paragraph (5), the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class specified in an instructor’s rating included in the licence on an aerial work flight which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment.

(5) The holder may exercise the privileges specified in paragraph (4) only in an aeroplane which the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command on a private flight, an aerial work flight, a public transport flight or a commercial air transport flight under the privileges set out in paragraph (1) or (2).

(6) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b) and paragraph (7) the holder is entitled to fly as co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is flying on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.

(b)The holder is not entitled to fly as co-pilot of an aeroplane which is flying on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport unless—

(i)the holder has more than 400 hours of flying experience as pilot in command of aeroplanes other than SLMGs and microlight aeroplanes; and

(ii)the aeroplane is certificated for single pilot operation.

(7) The holder must not at any time after attaining the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport.

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) which includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) and a night rating (aeroplanes) or night qualification (aeroplane).

(2) The holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane—

(a)on a special VFR flight notwithstanding that the flight visibility is less than three km;

(b)when the aeroplane is taking off from or landing at any place notwithstanding that the flight visibility below cloud is less than 1800 metres.

(3) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (8), the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is flying on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.

(4) The holder may not—

(a)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey;

(b)fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers unless the holder has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;

(c)as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in an aeroplane carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless the holder has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;

(d)if the licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required by sub-paragraph (b) has been at night;

(e)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly any such aeroplane which has a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 2300kg on any flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport, except a flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome;

(f)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport unless it is certificated for single pilot operation;

(g)fly such an aeroplane on any flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport after attaining the age of 60 years unless the aeroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane; or

(5) Subject to paragraph (6), the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class specified in an instructor’s rating included in the licence on a flight for the purpose of aerial work which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment.

(6) The holder may exercise the privileges specified in paragraph (5) only an aeroplane which the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command on a private flight, an aerial work flight, a public transport flight or a commercial air transport flight under the privileges set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of these privileges.

(7) Subject to paragraph (8) the holder is entitled to fly as co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is flying on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.

(8) The holder must not at any time after attaining the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport.

Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age – 21 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) except that the restriction at sub-paragraph (4)(f) of those privileges does not apply.

SUB-SECTION 2Helicopter and gyroplane pilots

Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age – 17 years

No maximum period of validity

Privileges:

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) is entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.

(2) The holder may not—

(a)fly such a helicopter for the purpose of public transport or aerial work except in accordance with paragraph (3);

(b)receive any remuneration for services as a pilot on a flight other than remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in paragraph (3);

(c)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night unless the licence includes a night rating (helicopters) or a night qualification (helicopter);

(d)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such a helicopter in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules—

(i)in Class A, B or C airspace at any time; or

(ii)in Class D, E, F or G airspace unless remaining clear of cloud and with the surface in sight; or

(e)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers unless—

(i)within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type; or

(ii)if the privileges are to be exercised by night and the licence does not include an instrument rating, within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings by night as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type.

(3) The holder may fly such a helicopter for the purpose of aerial work which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment provided that, in the case of instruction, the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating, a flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating.

Private Pilot’s Licence (Gyroplanes)

Minimum age – 17 years

No maximum period of validity

Privileges:

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot’s Licence (Gyroplanes) is entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any gyroplane of a type specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence.

(2) The holder may not—

(a)fly such a gyroplane for the purpose of public transport or aerial work except in accordance with paragraph (3);

(b)receive any remuneration for services as a pilot on a flight other than remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in paragraph (3);

(c)fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane at night unless the licence includes a night rating (gyroplanes) and the holder has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command not less than five take-offs and five landings at a time when the depression of the centre of the sun was not less than 12° below the horizon.

(3) The holder may fly such a gyroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment provided that, in the case of instruction, the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating, a flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating.

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (5), the holder of a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) is entitled—

(a)to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) or a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Gyroplanes) which includes respectively either a night rating (helicopters) or night qualification (helicopter) or a night rating (gyroplanes); and

(b)to fly as pilot in command of any helicopter or gyroplane on which the holder is so qualified and which is of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the helicopter or gyroplane is flying on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.

(2) The holder may not—

(a)fly such a helicopter on a public transport flight unless it is certificated for single pilot operation;

(b)fly such a helicopter on any public transport flight after attaining the age of 60 years unless the helicopter is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that helicopter;

(c)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules—

(i)in Class A, B or C airspace at any time; or

(ii)in Class D, E, F or G airspace unless remaining clear of cloud and with the surface in sight;

(d)fly as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers unless the holder has carried out at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, as pilot flying in a helicopter of the same type or a flight simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days;

(e)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) act as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (d) has been at night;

(f)fly such a gyroplane on a public transport flight unless it is certificated for single pilot operation;

(g)fly such a gyroplane at night unless the holder has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command not less than five take-offs and five landings at a time when the depression of the centre of the sun was not less than 12º below the horizon; or

(h)fly such a gyroplane on a public transport flight after attaining the age of 60 years unless the gyroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that gyroplane.

(3) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5) the holder is entitled to fly as co-pilot of any helicopter or gyroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the helicopter or gyroplane is flying on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.

(4) The holder may not—

(a)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as co-pilot of a helicopter flying in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules—

(i)in Class A, B or C airspace at any time; or

(ii)in Class D, E, F or G airspace unless remaining clear of cloud and with the surface in sight; or

(b)as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in a helicopter carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless the holder has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in a helicopter of the same type or in a flight simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

(5) The holder must not at any time after attaining the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter or gyroplane on a public transport flight.

Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Minimum age – 21 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) except that the restrictions at sub-paragraphs (2)(a) and (2)(f) of those privileges do not apply.

SUB-SECTION 3Balloon and airship pilots

Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships)

Minimum age – 17 years

No maximum period of validity

Privileges:

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships) is entitled to fly as pilot in command of any type of balloon or airship on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating in the licence and as co-pilot of any type of balloon or airship specified in such a rating.

(2) The holder may not—

(a)fly such a balloon or airship for the purpose of public transport or aerial work, other than aerial work which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment;

(b)receive any remuneration for services as a pilot on a flight other than remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a); or

(c)fly such a balloon unless the holder has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon at least five flights each of not less than five minutes duration.

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships).

(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence when the balloon is flying for any purpose whatsoever.

(3) The holder may not act as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers unless the holder has within the immediately preceding 90 days carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon at least three flights each of not less than five minutes duration.

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships).

(2) The holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of any type of airship on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence and as co-pilot of any type of airship specified in such a rating, when the airship is flying for any purpose whatsoever.

SUB-SECTION 4Glider pilots

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders) is entitled to fly for any purpose as pilot in command or co-pilot of—

(a)any glider which has a maximum total weight authorised of not more than 680kg; or

(b)any glider which has a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 680kg and which is of a type specified in the rating included in the licence.

SUB-SECTION 5Other flight crew

Flight Navigator’s Licence

Minimum age – 21 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Flight Navigator’s Licence is entitled to act as flight navigator in any aircraft.

Flight Engineer’s Licence

Minimum age – 21 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Flight Engineer’s Licence is entitled to act as flight engineer in any type of aircraft specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.

Flight Radiotelephony Operator’s Licence

Minimum age – 16 years

Maximum period of validity – 10 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Flight Radiotelephony Operator’s Licence is entitled to operate radiotelephony apparatus in any aircraft if the stability of the frequency radiated by the transmitter is maintained automatically but is not entitled to operate the transmitter, or to adjust its frequency, except by the use of external switching devices.

SECTION 2JAR-FCL Licences

SUB-SECTION 1Aeroplane pilots

Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Minimum age – 17 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to paragraph (4) and to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a class or type rating included in Part XII of the licence flying on non-revenue flights.

(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 1.

(3) The holder may not—

(a)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane—

(i)on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than three km;

(ii)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome traffic zone notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph; or

(iii)out of sight of the surface;

(b)unless the licence includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;

(c)unless the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes) or a night qualification (aeroplane) fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night; or

(d)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers unless—

(i)within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same type or class; and

(ii)if such a flight is to be carried out at night and the licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplanes) at least one of those take-offs and landings has been at night.

(4) If the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating, a flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating by virtue of which the holder is entitled to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes or SLMGs the holder may fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work consisting of instruction or testing in a club environment and receive remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests.

Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to—

(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) which includes a night qualification;

(b)act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a type or class rating included in Part XII of the licence on an aerial work or private flight;

(c)act as pilot in command on a commercial air transport or public transport flight of any aeroplane certificated for single pilot operation specified in a type or class rating included in Part XII of the licence; and

(d)act as co-pilot on a commercial air transport or public transport flight of any aeroplane specified in a type or class rating included in Part XII of the licence.

(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 1.

(3) The holder may not—

(a)fly as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport without complying with the requirements of paragraph 1.960(a)(1) and (2) of EU-OPS;

(b)fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane);

(c)fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers unless the holder has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;

(d)as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in an aeroplane carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless the holder has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;

(e)as the holder of a licence which does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane) act as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (c) has been at night; or

(f)unless the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly any such aeroplane which has a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 2300kg on any flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport, except a flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome.

(4) Subject to paragraph (5), the holder is entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class specified in any flying instructor’s rating, class rating instructor rating, flight instructor rating or assistant flying instructor’s rating included in the licence on an aerial work flight which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment.

Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

(6) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a commercial air transport or public transport flight unless the holder is—

(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and

(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.

(7) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a commercial air transport or public transport flight.

Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to—

(a)act as co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a type or class rating included in Part XII of the licence which is required to be operated with a co-pilot on any flight;

(b)exercise the privileges of the licence at night;

(c)exercise the privileges of an instrument rating (aeroplane) in an aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot;

(d)exercise the privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) provided that the requirements for that licence specified in Subpart C of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1 are met;

(e)exercise the privileges of a Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) provided that the requirements for that licence specified in paragraph 1.155(e) of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1 are met; and

(f)exercise the privileges of an instrument rating (aeroplane) in an aeroplane certificated for single pilot operation, provided that the licence holder has demonstrated an ability to act as pilot in command in an aeroplane certificated for single pilot operation exercised solely by reference to instruments by completing specific training at the discretion of the CAA and meeting the requirements as set out in paragraph 1.210 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.

(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.

(3) The holder must not operate an aeroplane carrying passengers as co-pilot unless the holder has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

(4) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a commercial air transport or public transport flight unless the holder is—

(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and

(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.

(5) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a commercial air transport or public transport flight.

(6) In paragraph 1, a reference to JAR-FCL 1 is a reference to the Joint Aviation Requirement of the JAA bearing that title including Amendment 7 adopted by the JAA on 1st December 2006.

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Minimum age – 21 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to—

(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane), a JAR–FCL Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) and an instrument rating (aeroplane); and

(b)act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a type or class rating included in Part XII of the licence on a commercial air transport or public transport flight.

(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 1.

(3) (a) If the holder of such a licence has previously held only a Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplane), the privileges of the licence are restricted to aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot unless the holder has met the requirements of Subpart C of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1 and paragraph 1.510(a)(2) and (a)(3) of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1 as applicable to the operation of aeroplanes certificated for single pilot operation.

(b)Any such restriction must be endorsed on the licence.

Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and

(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.

(5) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a commercial air transport or public transport flight.

(6) In paragraph 1, a reference to JAR-FCL 1 is a reference to the Joint Aviation Requirement of the JAA bearing that title including Amendment 7 adopted by the JAA on 1st December 2006.

SUB-SECTION 2Helicopter pilots

Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter)

Minimum age – 17 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) are to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter included in a type rating in Part XII of the licence flying on non-revenue flights.

(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 2.175 of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 2.

(3) The holder may not—

(a)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night unless the licence includes a night rating (helicopters) or a night qualification (helicopter); or

(b)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers unless—

(i)within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three solo circuits, each to include take-offs and landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type; and

Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter)

Minimum age – 18 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter) are to—

(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter);

(b)act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter specified in a type rating included in Part XII of the licence on a flight other than a public transport flight;

(c)act as pilot in command on a public transport flight of any helicopter certificated for single-pilot operation specified in a type rating included in Part XII of the licence;

(d)act as co-pilot on a public transport flight in any helicopter specified in a type rating included in Part XII of the licence required to be operated with a co-pilot.

(2) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), the licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 2.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 2.

(b)The holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter) may fly in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules in the United Kingdom in Class D, E, F or G airspace when remaining clear of cloud and with the surface in sight.

(3) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), the holder may not fly as pilot in command on a public transport flight unless the holder complies with the requirements of paragraph 3.960(a)(2) of Section 1 of JAR-OPS 3.

(b)Sub-paragraph (a) does not apply if the holder is flying by day under the provisions for flight with the surface in sight in Rule 33(1)(d) of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2007(6).

(4) The holder may not—

(a)fly as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers unless the holder has carried out at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, as pilot flying in a helicopter of the same type or a flight simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days; or

(b)as the holder of a helicopter licence which does not include an instrument rating (helicopter), act as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (b) has been at night.

Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

(5) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight unless the holder is—

(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and

(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.

(6) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight.

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopter)

Minimum age – 21 years

Maximum period of validity – 5 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to any conditions specified for the licence, the privileges of the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopter) are to—

(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) and a JAR–FCL Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter); and

(b)subject to paragraph (2), act as pilot in command or co-pilot in any helicopter specified in a type rating included in Part XII of the licence on a public transport flight.

(2) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), the holder may not fly as pilot in command on a public transport flight unless the holder complies with the requirements of paragraph 3.960(a)(2) of Section 1 of JAR-OPS 3.

(b)Sub-paragraph (a) does not apply if the holder is flying by day under the provisions for flight with the surface in sight in Rule 33(1)(d) of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2007.

Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

(3) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight except where the holder is—

(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and

(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.

(4) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years must not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight.

SECTION 3National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age – 17 years

No maximum period of validity

Privileges and conditions:

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) to (8) the holder of the licence is entitled to fly as pilot in command of any SSEA, microlight aeroplane or SLMG for which a class rating is included in the licence.

Flight outside the United Kingdom

(2) The holder may not fly—

(a)such a SSEA or a microlight aeroplane outside the United Kingdom except with the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which the aircraft is being flown; or

(b)such a SLMG in or over the territory of a Contracting State other than the United Kingdom except in accordance with a permission granted by the competent authority of that State provided that the holder may fly a SLMG outside the United Kingdom if the licence includes a SLMG rating and a medical certificate appropriate for such a flight.

Flight for purpose of commercial air transport, public transport and aerial work

(3) The holder may not fly any such aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transport, public transport or aerial work except in the circumstances specified in paragraph (4) or (5).

(4) The circumstances first referred to in paragraph (3) are that the holder flies such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of towing another aeroplane or glider in flight—

(a)in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the holder of the licence and any person carried in the towing aeroplane or in any aeroplane or glider being towed are members; or

(b)in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by an organisation approved by the CAA for the purpose of this provision when—

(i)the holder of the licence is a member of an organisation approved by the CAA for the purpose of this provision; and

(ii)any person carried in the towing aeroplane or in any aeroplane or glider being towed is a member of an organisation approved by the CAA for the purpose of this provision.

(5) The circumstances secondly referred to in paragraph (3) are that the holder flies such an aeroplane for the purposes of aerial work which consists of instruction or testing in a club environment provided that, in the case of instruction, the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating.

Receipt of remuneration

(6) The holder may receive any remuneration for services as a pilot on a flight only if the licence includes a flying instructor’s rating or an assistant flying instructor’s rating entitling the holder to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes or SLMGs, and the holder gives such instruction or conducts such flying tests as are specified in paragraph (5) in a microlight aeroplane or a SLMG.

Prohibitions on flight in specified conditions

(7) The holder may not fly—

(a)as pilot in command of such a SSEA on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than five km;

(b)as pilot in command of such a SLMG or microlight aeroplane on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than three km;

(c)as pilot in command of any such aeroplane—

(i)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km;

(ii)out of sight of the surface; or

(iii)at night; or

(d)as pilot in command of any such aeroplane in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.

Carriage of persons

(8) The holder may not fly as pilot in command of any such aeroplane—

(a)if the total number of persons carried (including the pilot) exceeds four; or

(b)when carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days the holder has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same class as that being flown.

PART BRatings and qualifications

SECTION 1Ratings and qualifications which may be included in United Kingdom Licences and JAR-FCL Licences but not in National Private Pilot’s Licences (Aeroplanes)

SUB-SECTION 1Aircraft ratings

1. An aircraft rating may be included in a United Kingdom licence or a JAR-FCL licence granted under Part 7, and, subject to the provisions of this Order and of the licence, the inclusion of a rating in a licence has the consequences specified as follows.

2. When included in a pilot licence an aircraft rating entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot of aircraft of the types and classes specified in the aircraft rating and different types and classes of aircraft may be specified in respect of different privileges of a licence.

3. When included in a Flight Engineer’s Licence an aircraft rating entitles the holder of the licence to act as flight engineer only of aircraft of a type specified in the aircraft rating.

SUB-SECTION 2Other ratings

4. Subject to article 82(2), the following ratings and qualifications may be included in a United Kingdom pilot licence or a JAR-FCL pilot licence granted under Part 7 and, subject to the provisions of this Order and of the licence, the inclusion of a rating or qualification in a licence has the consequences respectively specified as follows.

Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), within the United Kingdom an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) rating entitles—
(a)
the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) or a United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane without being subject to the restrictions contained respectively in paragraph (2)(c) or (f) of the privileges of the United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) or paragraph (3)(g) or (i) of the privileges of the United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes); and
(b)
the holder of a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
(2)
The rating does not entitle the holder of the licence to fly—
(a)
on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than three km; or
(b)
when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place if the flight visibility below cloud is less than 1800 metres.
Instrument rating (aeroplane)
An instrument rating (aeroplane) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying in controlled airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
Instrument rating (helicopter)
An instrument rating (helicopter) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter flying in controlled airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
Night rating (aeroplanes)
A night rating (aeroplanes) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) or a United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.
Night qualification (aeroplane)
A night qualification (aeroplane) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes), a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) or a United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.
Night rating (helicopters)
A night rating (helicopters) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at night.
Night qualification (helicopter)
A night qualification (helicopter) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) or a JAR–FCL Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at night.
Night rating (gyroplanes)
A night rating (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Gyroplanes) to act as pilot in command of a gyroplane at night.
Towing rating (flying machines)
A towing rating (flying machines) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot of a flying machine while towing a glider in flight for the purpose of public transport or aerial work.
Flying instructor’s rating
A flying instructor’s rating entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the rating for that purpose.
Assistant flying instructor’s rating
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), an assistant flying instructor’s rating entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the rating for that purpose.
(2)
(a)
Such instruction must only be given under the supervision of a person present during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to begin and end and who holds a pilot’s licence endorsed with a flying instructor’s rating entitling the holder to instruct on an aircraft of the same type or class as the aircraft on which instruction is being given.
(b)
An assistant flying instructor’s rating does not entitle the holder of the licence to give directions to a person undergoing instruction in respect of the performance of that person’s—
(i)
first solo flight;
(ii)
first solo flight by night;
(iii)
first solo cross-country flight otherwise than by night; or
(iv)
first solo cross-country flight by night.
Flight instructor rating (aeroplane)
A flight instructor rating (aeroplane) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the rating for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.
Restrictions - restricted period
(1)
Until the holder of a flight instructor rating (aeroplane) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 solo flights by students, the privileges of the rating are restricted.
(2)
The restrictions will be removed from the rating when the requirements specified in paragraph (1) have been met and on the recommendation of the supervising flight instructor (aeroplane).
Restrictions - restricted privileges
The privileges will be restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor rating (aeroplane) approved for this purpose—
(a)
flight instruction for the issue of the Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) or those parts of integrated courses at Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) level and class and type ratings for single-engine aeroplanes, excluding approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross country flights by day or by night; and
(b)
night flying instruction.
Flight instructor rating (helicopter)
A flight instructor rating (helicopter) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying helicopters of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.
Restrictions - restricted period
(1)
Until the holder of a flight instructor rating (helicopter) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 solo flights by students, the privileges of the rating are restricted.
(2)
The restrictions will be removed from the rating when the requirements specified in paragraph (1) have been met and on the recommendation of the supervising flight instructor (helicopter).
Restrictions - restricted privileges
(3)
The privileges are restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor rating (helicopter) approved for this purpose—
(a)
flight instruction for the issue of the Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) or those parts of integrated courses at Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) level and type ratings for single-engine helicopters, excluding approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross-country flights by day or by night; and
(b)
night flying instruction.
Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane)
A type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.
Type rating instructor rating (helicopter)
A type rating instructor rating (helicopter) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.
Class rating instructor rating (single-pilot aeroplane)
A class rating instructor rating (single-pilot aeroplane) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a type or class rating for single-pilot aeroplanes.
Instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane)
An instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) entitles the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes).
Instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter)
An instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) entitles the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (helicopter).

5. For the purposes of this Section—

“Day” means the time from half an hour before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;

“Solo flight” means a flight on which the pilot of the aircraft is not accompanied by a person holding a pilot’s licence granted or rendered valid under this Order;

“Cross-country flight” means any flight during the course of which the aircraft is more than three nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.

SECTION 2Aircraft and instructor ratings which may be included in United Kingdom Licences, JAR-FCL Licences and National Private Pilot’s Licences (Aeroplanes)

1. The following ratings may be included in a United Kingdom pilot licence, a JAR-FCL pilot licence or a National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) granted under Part 7, and, subject to the provisions of this Order and of the licence, the inclusion of a rating in a licence has the consequences specified as follows.

Microlight class rating
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a microlight class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any microlight aeroplane.
(2)
(a)
If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of any single seat microlight aeroplane.
(b)
(i)
If the aeroplane has—
(aa)
three axis controls and the holder’s previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with flexwing/weightshift controls;
(bb)
flexwing/weightshift controls and the holder’s previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with three axis controls; or
(cc)
more than one engine,
before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must complete appropriate differences training.
(ii)
The differences training must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder’s personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.
(c)
(i)
Where the aeroplane is to be operated from water during take-off and landing, before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must—
(aa)
complete appropriate differences training; and
(bb)
attain a pass in the Private or Professional Seamanship examination.
(ii)
The differences training must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder’s personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.
SSEA class rating
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a SSEA class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any SSEA with a maximum take off weight authorised of not more than 2000kg excluding any such aeroplane which is a SLMG or a microlight aeroplane.
(2)
(a)
If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of a single seat SSEA.
(b)
(i)
If the aeroplane—
(aa)
is fitted with a tricycle undercarriage;
(bb)
is fitted with a tailwheel;
(cc)
is fitted with a supercharger or turbo-charger;
(dd)
is fitted with a variable pitch propeller;
(ee)
is fitted with retractable landing gear;
(ff)
is fitted with a cabin pressurisation system; or
(gg)
has a maximum continuous cruising speed in excess of 140 knots indicated airspeed,
before exercising the privileges of the rating, the holder must complete appropriate differences training.
(ii)
The differences training must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder’s personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.
(c)
(i)
If the aeroplane is to be operated from water during take-off and landing, before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must—
(aa)
complete appropriate differences training; and
(bb)
attain a pass in the Private or Professional Seamanship examination.
(ii)
The differences training must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder’s personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.
SLMG class rating
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a SLMG class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any SLMG.
(2)
If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of a single seat SLMG.
Flying instructor’s rating (microlight)
A flying instructor’s rating (microlight) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes.
Flying instructor’s rating (SLMG)
A flying instructor’s rating (SLMG) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying SLMGs.
Assistant flying instructor’s rating (microlight)
(1)
Subject to paragraph (2), an assistant flying instructor’s rating (microlight) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes.
(2)
(a)
Such instruction must only be given under the supervision of a person present during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to begin and end and holding a pilot’s licence endorsed with a flying instructor’s rating entitling that person to instruct on a microlight aeroplane with the same type of control system as the microlight aeroplane on which instruction is being given.
(b)
An assistant flying instructor’s rating (microlight) does not entitle the holder of the licence to give directions to the person undergoing instruction in respect of the performance of that person’s—
(i)
first solo flight; or
(ii)
first solo cross-country flight.

2. For the purposes of this Section, “solo flight” and “cross-country flight” have the same meaning as in Section 1.

PART CMaintenance of licence privileges

SECTION 1Requirement for Certificate of Test or Experience

Appropriateness of certificate

1.—(1) For the purposes of articles 66(2), 68(1), 69(3) or 71 the type of certificate specified in column 4 in the following table is appropriate for the flight or functions described in column 3 carried out by the holder of the type of licence specified in column 2.

Case	Class of Licence	Description of Flight	Certificate Required
A	Private Pilot’s Licence (Gyroplanes)	Any flight within the privileges of the licence	Certificate of test or certificate of experience
	Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)	Any flight within the privileges of a microlight aeroplane class rating included in the licence	Certificate of test or certificate of experience
B	Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships)	Carriage of passengers on a flight for which the holder of the licence receives remuneration	Certificate of test
C	Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships)	For public transport	Certificate of test
D	Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships)	For aerial work	Certificate of test or certificate of experience
E	Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships)	Any flight within the privileges of a Private Pilot’s Licence	Certificate of test or certificate of experience
F	Flight Navigator’s Licence	Flights to which article 47 applies	Certificate of experience

(2) For the purposes of this Part of this Schedule, references to Cases are references to the Cases indicated in the first Column of the Table above.

Certificate of test

2. A certificate of test required by article 66(2), 68(1) or 69(3) must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify the following—

(a)the functions to which the certificate relates;

(b)that the person signing the certificate is satisfied that on a date specified in the certificate the holder of the licence or personal flying logbook of which the certificate forms a part passed an appropriate test of the holder’s ability to perform the functions to which the certificate relates;

(c)the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test was conducted; and

(d)the date on which it was signed.

Nature of test

3. The appropriate test referred to in paragraph 2—

(a)in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms part to act as pilot in command or co-pilot (or both) of aircraft of the type, types or class specified in the certificate—

(i)is a test of the pilot’s competence to fly the aircraft as pilot in command or co-pilot (or both); and

(ii)must where the CAA so specifies for the whole or part of a test, be conducted in an aircraft in flight or by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

(b)in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms part to perform the functions to which a flying instructor’s rating (gyroplanes), an assistant flying instructor’s rating (gyroplanes) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) relate—

(i)is a test of the holder’s ability to perform the functions to which the rating relates; and

(ii)must where the CAA so specifies for the whole or part of the test, be conducted in an aircraft in flight.

Period of validity of certificate of test

4.—(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), a certificate of test required by article 66(2) for a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) is not valid in relation to a flight made more than 13 months after the date of the test which it certifies.

(2) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), a certificate of test required by article 66(2) or 69(3) for any other licence, is not valid in relation to a flight made more than 13 months in Cases A, B and E or more than six months in Cases C and D after the date of the test which it certifies.

(3) In the case of Cases C and D, two certificates of test are together deemed to constitute a valid certificate of test if they certify flying tests conducted on two occasions within the period of 13 months preceding the flight on which the functions are to be performed, such occasions being separated by an interval of not less than four months, and if both certificates are appropriate to those functions.

(4) A certificate of test required by article 68(1) for an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) is not valid in relation to a flight made more than 25 months after the date of the test which it certifies.

(5) A certificate of test required by article 68(1) for an assistant flying instructor’s rating (gyroplanes) and a flying instructor’s rating (gyroplanes) is not valid in relation to a flight made more than three years after the date of the test which it certifies.

Certificate of experience

5. A certificate of experience required by article 66(2), 69(3) or 71 must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign such a certificate and certify—

(a)the functions to which the certificate relates;

(b)in the case of a pilot, that on the date on which the certificate was signed, the holder of the licence or personal flying log book of which it forms part—

(i)produced the personal flying log book to the person signing the certificate; and

(ii)satisfied the authorised person that the licence holder had appropriate experience in the capacity to which the licence relates within the appropriate period specified in paragraph 6 of this Part of this Schedule;

(c)in the case of a flight navigator, that on the date on which the certificate was signed, the holder of the licence of which it forms part—

(i)produced the licence holder’s navigation logs, charts and workings of astronomical observations to the authorised person; and

(d)in the case of a pilot or flight engineer, the type or types of aircraft in which the experience was gained;

(e)the date on which it was signed.

Period of experience

6. A certificate of experience is not valid unless the experience was gained within the period of 13 months preceding the signing of the certificate in the case of Cases A, E and F, or six months preceding the signing of the certificate in the case of Case D.

Period of validity of certificate of experience

7. A certificate of experience for a Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons) is not valid for more than 13 months after it was signed and for any other licence is not valid for more than six months after it was signed for Case D nor for more than 13 months after it was signed for any other case.

SECTION 2Requirement for Certificate of Revalidation

Appropriate certificate of revalidation

8. A certificate of revalidation required by article 67(2), 68(2) or 70 is not appropriate to the exercise of the privileges of a flight crew licence unless it is a certificate which accords with this Section.

Type and class ratings

9.—(1) Aeroplane type and class ratings

(a)Type ratings and multi-engine class ratings, aeroplane

(i)Validity

Type ratings and multi-engine class ratings for aeroplanes are valid for one year beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.

(ii)Revalidation

For revalidation of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings, aeroplane, the applicant must satisfy the requirements specified in paragraph 1.245(a) and (b) of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 1.

(b)Single-pilot single-engine class ratings

(i)Validity

Single-pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for two years beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.

(ii)Revalidation of all single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings (land) and all touring motor glider ratings

For revalidation of single-pilot single-engine piston aeroplane (land) class ratings or touring motor glider class ratings (or both) the applicant must on single engine piston aeroplanes (land) or touring motor gliders (as the case may be) satisfy the requirements specified in paragraph 1.245(c)(1) of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 1.

(iii)Revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (land) single-pilot

For revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop (land) class ratings the applicant must within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check with an authorised examiner on an aeroplane in the relevant class.

(iv)Revalidation of single-engine piston aeroplanes (SEA)

For revalidation of single-pilot single-engine piston aeroplane (SEA) class ratings the applicant must—

(aa)within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check with an authorised examiner on a single-engine piston aeroplane (SEA); or

(bb)within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating complete at least 12 hours of flight time including at least six hours of pilot in command time on either a single-engine piston aeroplane (SEA) or a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) and at least 12 water take-offs and 12 alightings on water; and either complete a training flight of at least one hour duration with a flight instructor or pass a proficiency check or skill test for any other class or type rating.

(c)Expired ratings

(i)If a type rating or multi-engine class rating has expired, the applicant must meet the requirements in sub-paragraph (a)(ii) and meet any refresher training requirements as determined by the CAA and the rating will be valid from the date of completion of the renewal requirements.

(ii)If a single-pilot single-engine class rating has expired, the applicant must complete the skill test in accordance with the requirements specified at Appendix 3 to paragraph 1.240 of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 1.

(2) Helicopter type ratings

(a)Type ratings, helicopter – validity

Type ratings for helicopters are valid for one year beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.

(b)Type ratings, helicopter – revalidation

For revalidation of type ratings, helicopter, the applicant must complete the requirements specified in paragraph 2.245(b) of Section 1 of JAR–FCL 2.

(c)Expired ratings

If a type rating has expired, the applicant must meet the requirements in sub-paragraph (b) and meet any refresher training requirements as determined by the CAA and the rating is valid for a period beginning with the date of completion of the renewal requirements.

(3) Flight engineer type ratings

(a)Type ratings – validity

Flight engineer type ratings are valid for one year beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.

(b)Type ratings – Revalidation

For revalidation of flight engineer type ratings the applicant must, within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check with an authorised examiner on the relevant type of aircraft.

Forms of certificate of revalidation

10.—(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 65(2), 66(2) or 68 must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—

(a)the functions to which the certificate relates;

(b)that the person signing the certificate is satisfied that on a date specified in the certificate, the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms a part met the appropriate requirements for revalidation specified for the rating, in the case of an aircraft rating in paragraph 2 and in the case of any other rating in the Table at sub-paragraph (2), to exercise the privileges of the licence or rating to which the certificate relates;

(c)the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test was conducted; and

(d)the date on which it was signed.

(2) The requirements for revalidation of a rating listed in Column 1 are those set out in Column 2 of the following Table.

Rating	Paragraph in Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1 or 2
Instrument rating (aeroplane)	1.185
Instrument rating (helicopter)	2.185
Flight Instructor (aeroplane)	1.355
Flying instructor’s rating (aeroplanes)
Assistant flying instructor’s rating (aeroplanes)
Flight instructor (helicopter)	2.355
Flying instructor’s rating (helicopters)
Assistant flying instructor’s rating (helicopters)
Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane)	1.370
Type rating instructor rating (helicopter)	2.370
Class rating instructor rating (single pilot aeroplane)	1.385
Instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane)	1.400
Instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter)	2.400

SECTION 3Requirement for a Certificate of Revalidation to maintain the validity of a rating specified in Section 2 of Part B

11.—(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 69(1) for a SSEA class rating, a microlight class rating or a SLMG class rating must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—

(a)the rating to which the certificate relates;

(b)that on a specified date the holder has satisfied the relevant requirements for issue in accordance with Table 1 and Table 2;

(c)the specified date; and

(d)the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with Table 3.

(2) In the case of a certificate of revalidation for a class rating which is being issued on the basis of paragraph 1(b) of Table 2, so that the holder of the licence has satisfied the experience requirements but without having had a flight with an instructor as part of that experience, the person signing the certificate must endorse the certificate “single seat only”.

(3) Such a certificate of revalidation remains valid in accordance with Table 3.

Table 1 - Requirements for issue of a certificate of revalidation for an aeroplane class rating included in Section 2 of Part B

	Circumstances	Requirements
1	On initial issue by the CAA	The holder of the licence has passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the licence application form in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought
2	There is a current valid certificate of revalidation for the rating	The holder of the licence has— (a) passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought; or (b) produced their personal flying log book to the authorised person signing the certificate and satisfied the authorised person that the holder satisfied the experience requirements specified in Table 2
3	The last previous certificate of revalidation for the rating expired less than five years before the date on which the new certificate is to be signed	The holder of the licence has passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought
4	The last previous certificate of revalidation for the rating expired five years or more before the date on which the new certificate is to be signed	The holder of the licence has passed— (a) a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought; and (b) an oral theoretical knowledge examination conducted by the authorised examiner as part of the NPPL General Skill Test

Table 2 - Experience requirements for issue of certificate of revalidation in accordance with paragraph 2(b) of Table 1

	Circumstances	Experience requirements
1	Where one aeroplane class rating is held	(a) The holder has, as a pilot, in an aeroplane specified in the aeroplane class rating and within the period of validity of the current certificate of revalidation for the rating— (i) flown at least 12 hours which includes at least 8 hours as pilot in command; (ii) completed at least 12 take-offs and 12 landings; (iii) subject to sub-paragraph (b), undertaken at least one hour of flying training with an instructor entitled to give instruction on aeroplanes of that class; and (iv) flown at least six hours in the 12 months preceding the specified date. (b) If the holder has not undertaken the flying training specified in paragraph 1(a)(iii) a certificate of revalidation may be issued but must be endorsed “single seat only”.
2	Where two or three aeroplane class ratings are held	(a) The holder has, as a pilot, within the period of validity of the current certificate of revalidation for each rating— (i) flown a total of at least 12 hours in an aeroplane coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held which includes at least a total of eight hours as pilot in command; (ii) completed not less than 12 take-offs and 12 landings in an aeroplane coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held; (iii) subject to sub-paragraph (b), in an aeroplane coming within each of the aeroplane class ratings which are held, either— (aa) flown at least one hour as pilot in command; or (bb) undertaken at least one hour of flying training with an instructor entitled to give instruction on aeroplanes of that class; (iv) subject to sub-paragraph (b), undertaken at least one hour of flying training in aeroplanes coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held, with instructors entitled to give instruction on aeroplanes of those classes; and (v) flown at least six hours in the 12 months preceding the specified date in an aeroplane coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held. (b) If the holder has flown at least one hour as pilot in command as specified in paragraph 2(a)(iii)(aa) but has not undertaken the flying training specified in paragraph 2(a)(iv) a certificate of revalidation may be issued but must be endorsed “single seat only”.

Table 3 - Period of validity of certificate of revalidation for an aeroplane class rating included in Section 2 of Part B

	Circumstances	Period of validity for a certificate of revalidation for aeroplane class ratings
1	The previous certificate is valid on the specified date of the new certificate	The new certificate is valid for 24 months from the date of expiry of the current certificate
2	There is no valid certificate on the specified date of the new certificate.	The new certificate is valid for 24 months from the specified date

12.—(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 69(1) for a flying instructor’s rating (SLMG), a flying instructor’s rating (microlight), or an assistant flying instructor’s rating (microlight) must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—

(a)the rating to which the certificate relates;

(b)that on a specified date the holder has passed an appropriate test of the holder’s ability to exercise the privileges of the rating;

(c)the specified date; and

(d)the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with Table 4.

(2) Such a certificate of revalidation remains valid in accordance with Table 4.

Table 4 - Period of validity of certificate of revalidation for a flying instructor’s rating included in Section 2 of Part B

	Circumstances	Period of validity for a certificate of revalidation for a flying instructor’s rating (microlight and/or SLMG)	Period of validity for a certificate of revalidation for an assistant flying instructor’s rating (microlight)
	Whether or not a previous certificate is valid on the specified date of the instructor flight and ground test	The new certificate is valid for 25 months from the date of test	The new certificate is valid for 13 months from the date of test

Articles 83(5), 85(4), 95(2) and 95(3)

SCHEDULE 8Public transport – operational requirements

PART AInformation and instructions which must be included in an operations manual

1. Information and instructions relating to the following matters must be included in an operations manual—

(a)The number of the crew to be carried in the aircraft, on each stage of any route to be flown.

(b)The respective capacities in which the crew members are to act.

(c)Instructions as to the order and circumstances in which command is to be assumed by members of the crew.

(d)The respective duties of each member of the crew and the other members of the operating staff.

(e)The scheme referred to in article 145(1).

(f)Such technical detailed information concerning the aircraft, its engines and equipment and concerning the performance of the aircraft as may be necessary to enable the flight crew of the aircraft to perform their respective duties.

(g)(i)The manner in which the quantities of fuel and oil to be carried by the aircraft are to be computed and records of fuel and oil carried and consumed on each stage of the route to be flown are to be maintained.

(ii)The instructions must take account of all circumstances likely to be encountered on the flight including the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines.

(h)The manner in which the quantity, if any, of oxygen and oxygen equipment to be carried in the aircraft for the purpose of complying with Scale L1 or L2 in Schedule 4 is to be computed.

(i)The check system to be followed by the crew of the aircraft before and on take-off, on landing and in an emergency, so as to ensure that the operating procedures contained in the operations manual and in the flight manual or performance schedule for the aircraft are complied with.

(j)The circumstances in which a radio watch is to be maintained.

(k)The circumstances in which oxygen is to be used by the crew of the aircraft, and by passengers.

(l)(i)Subject to paragraph 2, communication, navigational aids, aerodromes, local regulations, in-flight procedures, approach and landing procedures and such other information as the operator considers necessary for the proper conduct of flight operations.

(ii)The information referred to in sub-paragraph (i) must be contained in a route guide, which may be in the form of a separate volume.

(m)The reporting in flight to the notified authorities of meteorological observations.

(n)(i)Subject to paragraph 2, the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stages of the route to be flown and any planned diversion from that route.

(ii)The minimum altitudes must not be lower than any which may be applicable under the law of the United Kingdom or of the countries whose territory is to be flown over.

(o)The required information referred to in article 107(2).

(p)Emergency flight procedures, including procedures for the instruction of passengers in the position and use of emergency equipment and procedures to be adopted when the commander of the aircraft becomes aware that another aircraft or a vessel is in distress and needs assistance.

(q)In the case of aircraft intended to fly at an altitude of more than 49,000 ft the procedures for the use of cosmic radiation detection equipment.

(r)The labelling and marking of dangerous goods, the manner in which the dangerous goods must be loaded on or suspended beneath an aircraft, the responsibilities of members of the crew for the carriage of dangerous goods and the action to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving dangerous goods.

(s)Such detailed information about any permission granted to the operator under article 41(3) as may be necessary to enable the commander of the aircraft to determine whether article 86(3)(b)(ii) can be complied with.

(t)Procedures for the operation of any airborne collision avoidance system carried on the aircraft.

(u)The establishment and maintenance of an accident prevention and flight safety programme.

(v)In the case of a helicopter, the maximum approved passenger seating configuration.

2. In relation to any flight which is not one of a series of flights between the same two places and to the extent that it is not practicable to comply with sub-paragraphs 1(1) and 1(n), it is sufficient if the manual contains such information and instructions as will enable the equivalent data to be ascertained before take-off.

PART BInformation and instructions which must be included in a training manual

1. The following information and instructions must be included in a training manual—

(a)The manner in which the training, practice and periodical tests required under article 95(2) and specified in Part C of this Schedule are to be carried out.

(b)The minimum qualifications and experience which an operator requires of persons appointed by the operator to give or to supervise the training, practice and periodical tests.

(c)The type of training, practice and periodical tests which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise.

(d)The type of aircraft for which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise the said training, practice and periodical tests.

(e)The minimum qualifications and experience required for each member of the crew undergoing the required training, practice and periodical tests.

(f)The current syllabus for, and specimen forms for recording, the required training, practice and periodical tests.

(g)The manner in which instrument flight conditions and engine failure are to be simulated in the aircraft in flight.

(h)The extent to which the required training and testing is permitted in the course of flights for the purpose of public transport.

(i)The use to be made in the required training and testing of apparatus approved for the purpose by the CAA.

PART CRequired crew training, experience, practice and periodical tests

Crew

1. The training, experience, practice and periodical tests required under article 95(2) for members of the crew of an aircraft to which that paragraph applies must be as follows.

(a)Every member of the crew must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator within the relevant period as to the crew member’s knowledge of the use of the emergency and life saving equipment required to be carried in the aircraft on the flight.

(b)Every member of the crew must have practised under the supervision of the operator or of a person appointed by the operator for the purpose, within the relevant period, the carrying out of the duties required of the crew member in case of an emergency occurring to the aircraft—

(i)in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight; or

(ii)in apparatus approved by the CAA for the purpose and controlled by a person so approved by the CAA.

Pilots

2.—(1) Every pilot included in the flight crew who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator within the relevant period—

(a)as to the pilot’s competence to perform the pilot’s duties while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures in flight; and

(b)as to the pilot’s competence to perform the pilot’s duties in instrument flight conditions while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures in flight,

in each case in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight and including the use of the instruments and equipment provided in the aircraft.

(2) A pilot’s ability to execute normal manoeuvres and procedures must be tested in the aircraft in flight.

(3) The other tests required by sub-paragraph (1) may be conducted either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

(4) The tests specified in sub-paragraph (1)(b) when conducted in the aircraft in flight must be carried out either in actual instrument flight conditions or in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA.

(5) Every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating or who is not intended by the operator to fly in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules, even though the licence includes such a rating, must have been tested within the relevant period, by or on behalf of the operator in flight in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight—

(a)as to the pilot’s competence to act as pilot of that aircraft, while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and

(b)as to the pilot’s competence to act as pilot of that aircraft while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures.

(6) (a) This sub-paragraph (6) applies to every pilot included in the flight crew who is seated at the flying controls during the take-off or landing and who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.

(b)Every pilot to whom this sub-paragraph applies must have been tested within the relevant period as to the pilot’s proficiency in using instrument approach-to-land systems of the type in use at the aerodrome of intended landing and any alternate aerodromes.

(c)The test required by sub-paragraph (b) must be carried out—

(i)in flight in instrument flight conditions; or

(ii)in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA; or

(iii)under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

(7) In the case of a helicopter, every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating but who is intended to fly at night under visual flight conditions, must have been tested within the relevant period by or on behalf of the operator, in a helicopter of the type to be used on the flight, as to the pilot’s competence to act as pilot of that helicopter—

(a)while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and

(b)while executing specified manoeuvres and procedures in flight in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA.

(8) Every pilot included in the flight crew and who is seated at the flying controls during take-off or landing must have carried out within the relevant period, at least three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the type to be used on the flight when seated at the flying controls.

Flight engineers

3.—(1) Every flight engineer included in the flight crew must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator within the relevant period—

(a)as to the engineer’s competence to perform the engineer’s duties while executing normal procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight; and

(b)as to the engineer’s competence to perform the engineer’s duties while executing emergency procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight.

(2) A flight engineer’s ability to carry out normal procedures must be tested in an aircraft in flight and the other tests required by this paragraph may be conducted—

(a)in the aircraft in flight; or

(b)under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

Flight radiotelephony operators and flight navigators

4. Every flight radiotelephony operator and flight navigator whose inclusion in the flight crew is required under articles 43(5) and 47(1)(a) respectively must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator within the relevant period as to their competence to perform their duties in conditions corresponding to those likely to be encountered on the flight—

(a)in the case of a flight radiotelephony operator using radio equipment of the type installed in the aircraft to be used on the flight, and including a test of the operator’s ability to carry out emergency procedures; and

(b)in the case of a flight navigator, using equipment of the type to be used in the aircraft on the flight for purposes of navigation.

Aircraft commanders

5.—(1) The pilot designated as commander of the aircraft for the flight must have demonstrated to the satisfaction of the operator within the relevant period that the pilot has adequate knowledge of the route to be taken, the aerodromes of take-off and landing, and any alternate aerodromes, including in particular the pilot’s knowledge of the following which are relevant to the route—

(a)the terrain;

(b)the seasonal meteorological conditions;

(c)the meteorological, communications and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;

(d)the search and rescue procedures; and

(e)the navigational facilities.

(2) In determining whether a pilot’s knowledge of the matters referred to in sub-paragraph (1) is sufficient to render the pilot competent to perform the duties of aircraft commander on the flight, the operator must take into account the pilot’s flying experience in conjunction with the following—

(a)the experience of other members of the intended flight crew;

(b)the influence of terrain and obstructions on departure and approach procedures at the aerodromes of take-off and intended landing and at alternate aerodromes;

(c)the similarity of the instrument approach procedures and let-down aids to those with which the pilot is familiar;

(d)the dimensions of runways which may be used in the course of the flight in relation to the performance limits of aircraft of the type to be used on the flight;

(e)the reliability of meteorological forecasts and the probability of difficult meteorological conditions in the areas to be traversed;

(f)the adequacy of the information available regarding the aerodrome of intended landing and any alternate aerodromes;

(g)the nature of air traffic control procedures and the familiarity of the pilot with such procedures;

(h)the influence of terrain on route conditions and the extent of the assistance obtainable en route from navigational aids and air-to-ground communication facilities; and

(i)the extent to which it is possible for the pilot to become familiar with unusual aerodrome procedures and features of the route by means of ground instruction and training devices.

Deemed compliance

6.—(1) For the purposes of paragraph 2(1), 2(5) or 3(1) a pilot or flight engineer is deemed to have complied with the specified requirements in paragraphs 2(1)(b), 2(5)(b) or 3(1)(b) within the relevant period if—

(a)they have qualified in accordance with the specified requirements on at least two occasions within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight; and

(b)such occasions are separated by an interval of not less than four months.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph 5(1) a pilot is deemed to have complied with the specified requirements if, having become qualified to act as commander on flights between the same places over the same route more than 13 months before commencement of the flight, the pilot has within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight flown as pilot of an aircraft between those places over that route.

Contents of records

7. The records required to be maintained by an operator under article 95(3) must be accurate and up-to-date records kept so as to show, on any date, in relation to each person who has during the period of two years immediately preceding that date flown as a member of the crew of any public transport aircraft operated by that operator—

(a)the date and detailed information about each test required by this Part and undergone by that person during the period, including the name and qualifications of the examiner;

(b)the date on which that person last practised the carrying out of duties referred to in paragraph 1(2);

(c)the operator’s conclusions, based on each such test and practice as to that person’s competence to perform that person’s duties; and

(d)the date and detailed information about any decision taken by the operator during the period in accordance with paragraph 5(1), including detailed information about the evidence on which that decision was based.

Production of records to authorised person

8. The operator must, whenever called on to do so by any authorised person—

(a)produce for the inspection of any such person all records referred to in paragraph 7;

(b)supply to any such person all such information that person may require in connection with any such records; and

(c)produce for inspection by any such person all log books, certificates, papers and other documents, whatsoever which may reasonably be required to be seen for the purpose of determining whether such records are complete or of verifying the accuracy of their contents.

Supply of records to crew member

9. At the request of any person for whom the operator is required to keep records under this Part, the operator must supply to that person, or to any other operator of aircraft for the purpose of commercial air transport or public transport by whom that person may subsequently be employed, detailed information about any qualifications in accordance with this Schedule obtained by such person whilst in the operator’s service.

Definitions and validity periods

10. For the purposes of this Part—

(a)‘visual flight conditions’ means weather conditions such that the pilot is able to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;

(b)‘instrument flight conditions’ means weather conditions such that the pilot is unable to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;

(c)‘relevant period’ means a period which immediately precedes the commencement of the flight, being, subject to paragraph 6, a period—

(i)in the case of paragraph 2(8), of three months;

(ii)in the case of paragraphs 2(1)(b), 2(5)(b), 2(6)(b), 2(7)(b) and 3(1)(b), of six months; and

(iii)in the case of paragraphs 1, 2(1)(a), 2(5)(a), 2(7)(a), 3(1)(a), 4 and 5(1), of 13 months.

Articles 150(2) and 156(3)

SCHEDULE 9Documents to be carried

Circumstances in which documents are to be carried

1. Subject to paragraph 3—

(a)on a public transport flight, Documents A, B, C, D, E, F, H and, if the flight is international air navigation, Documents G and I must be carried;

(b)on an aerial work flight, Documents A, B, C, E, F and, if the flight is international air navigation, Documents G and I must be carried;

(c)on a private flight which is international air navigation, Documents A, B, C, G and I must be carried;

(d)on a flight made in accordance with the terms of a permission granted to the operator under article 41(3), Document J must be carried.

Description of documents

2. For the purposes of this Schedule—

(a)‘Document A’ means the licence in force under the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006(7) for the aircraft radio station installed in the aircraft;

(b)‘Document B’ means in the case of a non-EASA aircraft the national certificate of airworthiness in force for the aircraft(8);

(c)‘Document C’ means the licences of the members of the flight crew of the aircraft;

(d)‘Document D’ means one copy of the load sheet, if any, required by article 100 for the flight;

(e)‘Document E’ means one copy of each certificate of maintenance review required by article 25(2), if any, in force for the aircraft;

(f)‘Document F’ means the technical log, if any, in which entries are required to be made under article 27(2);

(g)‘Document G’ means the certificate of registration in force for the aircraft;

(h)‘Document H’ means those parts of the operations manual, if any, required by article 86(4)(c) to be carried on the flight;

(i)‘Document I’ means a copy of the notified procedures to be followed by the pilot in command of an intercepted aircraft, and the notified visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;

(j)‘Document J’ means the permission, if any, granted for the aircraft under article 41(3).

Exceptions

3.—(1) If the certificate of airworthiness includes the flight manual for the aircraft and with the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 83 applies need not carry the flight manual as part of Document B.

(2) With the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 83 applies need not carry Document J if it carries an operations manual which includes the detailed information specified at paragraph 1(s) of Part A of Schedule 8.

Definition

4. For the purposes of this Schedule, ‘international air navigation’ means any flight which includes passage over the territory of any country other than the United Kingdom, but does not include passage over any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any other relevant overseas territory to which there is power to extend the Civil Aviation Act 1982(9)under section 108(1) of that Act.

Articles 180, 185, 186 and 201

SCHEDULE 10Air Traffic Controllers – Licences, Ratings, Endorsements And Maintenance Of Licence Privileges

PART AAir Traffic Controller Licences

Air Traffic Controller’s Licence

1. The privileges of an air traffic controller’s licence are to—

(a)act as an air traffic controller for any sector or operational position for which a valid rating and endorsement and current unit endorsement are included in the licence; and

(b)exercise the privileges of a student air traffic controller’s licence.

Student Air Traffic Controller’s Licence

2. The privileges of a student air traffic controller’s licence are to act as an air traffic controller under the supervision of another person who is present at the time and who—

(a)is the holder of an air traffic controller’s licence entitling the holder to provide unsupervised the type of air traffic control service which is being provided by the student air traffic controller; and

(b)is an on-the-job training instructor.

PART BRatings, Rating Endorsements and Licence Endorsements

Inclusion of ratings, rating endorsements and licence endorsements

1.—(1) A licence granted under article 182 may contain the ratings, rating endorsements and licence endorsements of the classes contained in paragraphs 3 and 4.

(2) The inclusion of a rating, rating endorsement or licence endorsement shall have the consequences specified in relation to it.

Exercise of more than one function

2.—(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), the holder of a licence which includes ratings of two or more of the classes specified in paragraph 3 must not at any one time perform the functions specified in respect of more than one of those ratings.

(2) The functions of the following ratings may be exercised at the same time—

(a)an Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating and an Approach Control Procedural Rating; and

(b)an Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating and an Approach Control Surveillance Rating, provided that the holder shall not exercise the functions of any rating endorsement described in paragraph 2(a) to (c) of article 7 of the air traffic controllers’ directive included in the Approach Control Surveillance Rating.

(3) When a surveillance radar approach terminating at a point less than 2 nautical miles from the point of intersection of the glide path with the runway is being provided under an approach control surveillance rating, no other function under the approach control surveillance rating may be exercised at the same time.

Ratings and Rating Endorsements

3.—(1) There are the following classes of aerodrome control ratings and endorsements—

(a)the Aerodrome Control Visual Rating (ADV) as described in article 6 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(b)the Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating (ADI) as described in article 6 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(c)the Aerodrome Control Instrument rating must be accompanied by at least one of the rating endorsements described in paragraph 1 of article 7 of the air traffic controllers’ directive.

(2) There are the following classes of approach control ratings and endorsements—

(a)the Approach Control Procedural Rating (APP) as described in article 6 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(b)the Approach Control Surveillance Rating (APS) as described in article 6 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(c)the Approach Control Surveillance Rating must be accompanied by at least one of the following—

(i)a rating endorsement described in paragraph 2 of article 7 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(ii)the Multilateration Endorsement (MLT), which indicates that the holder is competent to provide an approach control service with the use of multilateration;

(iii)the Offshore Rating Endorsement entitles the holder of a Radar Endorsement to provide an offshore service;

(iv)the Special Tasks Rating Endorsement which entitles the holder of a Radar, Automatic Dependent Surveillance or Multilateration Endorsement to provide a special tasks service.

(3) There are the following classes of area control ratings and endorsements—

(a)the Area Control Procedural Rating (ACP) as described in article 6 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(b)the Area Control Procedural Rating may be accompanied by an Oceanic Control Rating Endorsement which entitles the holder to provide an area control service in the Shanwick Oceanic Control Area;

(c)the Area Control Surveillance Rating (ACS) as described in article 6 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(d)the Area Control Surveillance Rating must be accompanied by at least one of the following—

(i)a rating endorsement described in paragraph 3 of article 7 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(ii)the Multilateration Endorsement (MLT) which indicates that the holder is competent to provide an area control service with the use of multilateration;

(iii)an Offshore Rating Endorsement which entitles the holder of a Radar Endorsement to provide an offshore service;

(iv)a Special Tasks Rating Endorsement which entitles the holder of a Radar Automatic Dependent Surveillance or Multilateration Endorsement to provide a special tasks service.

Licence Endorsements

4. There are the following classes of licence endorsement—

(a)an Examiner Licence Endorsement (which is valid for a period of three years) entitles the holder to sign a unit endorsement in respect of—

(i)the air traffic control services that the air traffic controller licence entitles the holder to provide; or

(ii)such other air traffic control services as the CAA may authorise for that holder;

(b)an On-the-job Training Instructor Endorsement (which is valid for a period of three years) as described in article 9 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(c)a Unit Endorsement as described in article 10 of the air traffic controllers’ directive;

(d)a Language Endorsement.

Article 206

SCHEDULE 11Air traffic service equipment - records required and matters to which the CAA may have regard

PART ARecords to be kept in accordance with article 206(1)(a)

1. A record of any functional tests, flight checks and detailed information about any maintenance, repair, overhaul, replacement or modification.

2. Subject to paragraph 3, the record must be kept in a legible or a non-legible form. If the record is kept in a non-legible form it must be capable of being reproduced in a legible form and it must be so reproduced by the person required to keep the record if requested by an authorised person.

3. In any particular case the CAA may direct that the record is kept or be capable of being reproduced in such a form as it may specify.

PART BRecords required in accordance with article 206(5)(b)

4. Each record made by the apparatus provided in compliance with article 206(2) or (3) must be adequately identified and in particular must include—

(a)the identification of the aeronautical radio station;

(b)the date or dates on which the record was made;

(c)a means of determining the time at which each message or signal was transmitted or received;

(d)the identity of the aircraft to or from which and the radio frequency on which the message or signal was transmitted or received; and

(e)the time at which the record started and finished.

PART CMatters to which the CAA may have regard in granting an approval of apparatus in accordance with article 206(6)

1. The purpose for which the apparatus is to be used.

2. The manner in which the apparatus has been specified and produced in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used.

3. The adequacy, in relation to the purpose for which the apparatus is to be used, of the operating parameters of the apparatus (if any).

4. The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be operated, installed, modified, maintained, repaired and overhauled.

5. The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be inspected.

Article 211(7)

SCHEDULE 12Information and instructions which must be included in an aerodrome manual

1. The name and status of the accountable manager having corporate authority for ensuring that all operations activities can be financed and carried out to the standard required.

2. The names and status of other senior aerodrome operating staff and instructions as to the order and circumstances in which they may be required to act.

3. Details of the safety management system.

4. The system of aeronautical information service available.

5. Procedures for promulgating information concerning the aerodrome’s state.

6. Procedures for the control of access, vehicles and work in relation to the aerodrome manoeuvring area and apron.

7. Procedures for complying with article 226 and for the removal of disabled aircraft.

8. In the case of an aerodrome which has facilities for fuel storage, procedures for complying with article 217.

9.—(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), plans to an appropriate scale which clearly depict the layout of runways, taxiways and aprons, aerodrome markings, aerodrome lighting if such lighting is provided, and the siting of any navigational aids within the runway strip.

(2) In the case of copies or extracts of the manual provided or made available to a member of the aerodrome operating staff, the plans must be of a scale reasonably appropriate for the purposes of article 211(9).

10. For an aerodrome in relation to which there is a notified instrument approach procedure, survey information sufficient to provide data for the production of aeronautical charts relating to that aerodrome.

11. Description, height and location of obstacles which infringe standard obstacle limitation surfaces, and whether they are lit.

12. Data for and method of calculation of declared distances and elevations at the beginning and end of each declared distance.

13. Method of calculating reduced declared distances and the procedure for their promulgation.

14. Details of surfaces and bearing strengths of runways, taxiways and aprons.

15. The system of the management of air traffic in the airspace associated with the aerodrome, including procedures for the co-ordination of traffic with adjacent aerodromes, except any such information or procedures already published in any manual of air traffic services.

16. Operational procedures for the routine and special inspection of the aerodrome manoeuvring area and aprons.

17. If operations are permitted during periods of low visibility, procedures for the protection of the runways during such periods.

18. Procedures for the safe integration of all aviation activities undertaken at the aerodrome.

19. Details of or reference to the bird control management plan.

20. Procedures for the use and inspection of the aeronautical ground lighting system, if such a system is provided.

21. The scale of rescue, first aid and fire service facilities, the aerodrome emergency procedures and procedures to be adopted in the event of temporary depletion of the rescue and fire service facilities.

Article 241

SCHEDULE 13Penalties

PART AProvisions referred to in article 241(5)

SECTION 1

Article of Order	Subject Matter
5(3)		Unqualified person not to cause or permit aircraft to be used for commercial air transport, public transport or aerial work
6(6)		Aircraft to fly in accordance with conditions in aircraft dealer’s certificate
7(1)		Certificate of registration to be returned
7(2)		Registered owner to inform the CAA of specified events
7(3)		Person who becomes the owner of aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must inform the CAA
23(4)		Requirement for placard
23(5)		Requirement to fly by day and in accordance with Visual Flight Rules
24(2)		Restriction on purposes of flight by aircraft with a certificate of validation
26(5)		Carriage and keeping of certificate of maintenance review
26(6)		Preservation of certificate of maintenance review
27(8)		Carriage and keeping of technical log
27(10)		Preservation of technical log
34(6)		Preservation of log books
35(5)		Preservation of weight schedule
75		Requirement for training for landing on or taking off from water
79		Requirement to keep personal flying log book
81		Minimum age for glider pilot
93(5)		Pilot to be secured in seat
93(6)		Operator not to permit helicopter rotor to be turned unless pilot at controls
94(1) and (2)		Requirements for accident prevention and flight safety programme
100(1)		Person supervising loading to prepare and sign load sheet and submit it for examination by commander
100(2)		Carriage and preservation of load sheet
101(1)		Carriage of baggage
111(1)		Requirement to wear a survival suit
127		Self-sustaining glider not to take off under its own power
150(1), (2) and (4)		Documents to be carried
156(1), (2), (4) and (5)		Production of documents and records
157		Production of air traffic service equipment documents and records
159		Preservation of documents
160(5)		Requirement to inform CAA of departure from Rules of the Air
189(1)		Requirement to inform air navigation service provider
189(2) and (3)		Requirement to notify CAA and forward licence to CAA
190		Air navigation service provider to keep records
192		Incapacity of air traffic controllers
195		Not to act as air traffic controller or student air traffic controller where exam etc failed
198		Certification of training providers
199		Requirement for certified training provider to produce records
205(3)		Requirement to notify aeronautical radio station service
206(1)		Requirement to keep air traffic service equipment records
206(4)		Capability of recording apparatus
206(5)		Operation of recording apparatus
206(8) and (9)		Requirements where apparatus ceases to be capable of recording or becomes unserviceable
206(10) to (12)		Air traffic service equipment records
211(3)		Requirement to supply information
212(4)		Requirement for holder of public use licence to notify
213		Requirement for holder of public use licence to supply information to Secretary of State
214		Requirement to make air navigation facilities available
224(1)		Filing and approval of tariffs
228(3)		Requirement to surrender document to CAA
230(7)		Requirement to surrender permit to Secretary of State

SECTION 2

Provision of Part 21, M, 145, 66 or 147	Subject Matter
21A.61	Instructions for the continued airworthiness by the holder of type certificate or restricted type certificate
21A.107	Variations to instructions for continued airworthiness by the holder of a minor change approval to type design
21A.120	Instructions for continued airworthiness by supplemental type certificate holder
21A.130	Requirement for statement of conformity
21A.147	Approval of changes to the approved production organisation
21A.180	Inspections to be permitted by holder of airworthiness certificate
21A.439	Production of repair parts
21A.441	Repair embodiment
21A.449	Instructions for continued airworthiness by holder of repair design approval
21A.721	Inspections to be allowed by holder of, or applicant for, a permit to fly
21A.729	Record keeping by the holder of the approval of the flight conditions
21A.805	Identification of critical parts
M.A.307	Transfer of aircraft continuing airworthiness records
M.A.401	Use of current maintenance data
M.A.402	Performance of maintenance
M.A.501	Installation of components
M.A.502	Component maintenance
M.A.504 (b),(c) and (d)	Control of unserviceable components
M.A.611	Maintenance standards
M.A.614	Maintenance records to be kept by approved maintenance organisation
M.A.617	Notification of changes to the approved maintenance organisation
M.A.713	Notification of changes to the approved continuing airworthiness organisation
M.A.714	Record keeping by continuing airworthiness management organisation
M.A.902(c)	Airworthiness review certificate to be returned
145.A.85	Notification of changes to the organisation
147.A.110	Records of instructors, examiners and assessors
147.A.125	Records
147.A.150	Notification of changes to the maintenance training organisation

SECTION 3

Provision of EU-OPS	Subject Matter
1.037	Accident prevention and flight safety programme
1.110	Use of Portable Electronic Devices
1.125	Documents to be carried
1.130	Manuals to be carried
1.135(a)	Additional information and forms to be carried
1.140	Information to be retained on the ground
1.150	Production of documentation and records
1.155	Preservation of documentation
1.165(b) and (c)	Leasing requirements
1.205	Competence of operations personnel
1.220	Authorisation of aerodromes by operator
1.230	Use of instrument departure and approach procedures
1.295	Selection of aerodromes
1.300	Submission of ATS flight plan
1.335	Smoking on board
1.340	Meteorological conditions
1.345(b)	Commander not to take off unless external surfaces are clear
1.350	Fuel and oil supply
1.355	Take-off conditions
1.360	Commander to be satisfied as to take off minima
1.385	Use of supplemental oxygen
1.400	Approach and landing conditions
1.405(a), (d) and (e)	Commencement and continuation of approach
1.415	Requirement for journey log
1.420(b), (c) and (d)	Occurrence reporting
1.440	Low visibility operations – general operating roles
1.445	Low visibility operations – aerodrome considerations
1.450	Low visibility operations – training and qualifications
1.455	Low visibility operations – operating procedures
1.460	Low visibility operations – minimum equipment
1.465	VFR operating minima
1.615	Mass values for crew
1.620	Mass values for passengers and baggage
1.985	Training records for flight crew
1.1035	Training records for cabin crew
1.1105	Maximum daily flight duty period
1.1110	Rest requirements
1.1135	Flight duty, duty and rest period records

PART BProvisions referred to in article 241(6)

SECTION 1

Article of Order	Subject Matter
3(1)		Aircraft to be registered
10(1)		Aircraft not to fly unless it has nationality and registration marks
10(3)		Aircraft not to bear misleading marks
15(1)		Compliance with operational directives
20(1)		Compliance with airworthiness directives
23(1)		Restrictions on purposes of flight by aircraft with national permit to fly
23(2)		Restrictions of carriage of persons by aircraft with national permit to fly
25(1)		Requirement to be maintained in accordance with approved maintenance schedule
25(2)		Maintenance review requirements
27(2)		Requirement for technical log
27(4)		Entries in technical log
27(7)		Certificate to be entered in technical log
28(2)		Requirement for certificate of release to service for non-EASA aircraft
32		Requirement for certificate of release to service for EASA aircraft
33(7)		Holder of maintenance licence not to exercise privileges when unfit
34(1), (2), (3) and (5)		Requirements for log books for non-EASA aircraft
35(3)		Requirement for weighing and determining centre of gravity
35(4)		Requirement for weight schedule
37(1), (2), (3), (8) and (9)		Requirements for aircraft to carry equipment
38		Carriage and use of equipment
39(1), (2) (7), (8) and (9)		Requirements for aircraft to carry radio communication and radio navigation equipment
40		Carriage of notified radio communication and radio navigation equipment
41(4)		Carriage of minimum equipment
42		Required flight crew
43(3)		Flight crew required by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
44		Pilots required on public transport flights by flying machines
45(1)		Pilots required on public transport flights by aeroplanes
46(1)		Pilots required on public transport flights by helicopters
47		Flight navigators or navigational equipment required on public transport flights
48(2) and (3)		Requirement to carry cabin crew
49(1)		Compliance with direction to carry additional crew
63(2) and (3)		Holder of licence which does not meet minimum standards of Chicago Convention to obtain permission of competent authority and not to fly in the United Kingdom without permission of the CAA
74(1)		Person not to act as member of flight crew when unfit
74(2)		Requirement to inform CAA of injury, illness or pregnancy
80(2)		Requirements for giving of flying instruction
83		Operations manual requirements
84		Police operations manual requirements
85		Training manual requirements
86(2)		Pre-flight action by commander of aircraft
87		Commander to be satisfied that flight can be safely completed
88		Passenger briefing by commander
89		Commander to ensure demonstration of flight jackets
90		Commander to ensure crew, passengers and baggage secure
91		Commander to ensure demonstration of use of oxygen on public transport flights
92		Commander to demonstrate use of oxygen on aerial work and private flights
93(2), (3) and (4)		Pilots to remain at controls
95		Operator’s responsibilities in relation to crew
96		Operator’s responsibilities in relation to routes and aerodromes
97		Prohibition on public transport and commercial air transport flights at night and in specified meteorological conditions by aeroplane with one power unit registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
98		Operator’s duty concerning loading of public transport aircraft
103(1)		Requirement to comply with subpart F of EU-OPS
103(6) and (9)		Requirements for aeroplanes flying over water for public transport
104(2)		Public transport operating conditions and performance requirements for helicopters
104(6)		Requirements for helicopter on public transport flights flying over water
105		Requirements for helicopters carrying out a performance class 3 operation
106(1)(a)		Helicopter flying over water for public transport under national air operator’s certificate on performance class 1 or class 2 operation
106(1)(b)		Helicopter flying over water under police air operator’s certificate on a performance class 1 or class 2 operation
107		Aerodrome operating minima requirements for public transport aircraft registered in United Kingdom
108		Aerodrome operating minima requirements for public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in United Kingdom
109		Aerodrome operating minima requirements for aerial work and private aircraft
110		Commander to be satisfied that additional survival equipment carried
112		Operation of radio in aircraft
113		Requirement for operation of airborne collision avoidance system
114		Requirements for training in operation of airborne collision avoidance system
115		Vibration health monitoring system to be operated in accordance with approved procedures
116		Person not to be in specified parts of aircraft in flight or object towed or attached
117(2)		Exits to be in working order
117(3)		Exits to be kept free of obstruction
118(2)		Operator to ensure marking of exits
119(2)		Operator to ensure marking of break-in areas
121		Requirements concerning equipment when flying in North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace
122		Requirements concerning equipment when aircraft registered in United Kingdom flying in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace
123		Requirements concerning equipment when aircraft registered elsewhere than in United Kingdom flying in United Kingdom Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace
124		Requirements concerning equipment for aircraft registered in the United Kingdom flying in Required Navigation Performance airspace
125		Requirements concerning equipment for aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom flying in United Kingdom Required Navigation Performance airspace
126		Towing of gliders
128		Towing and picking up persons and articles other than gliders
129		Dropping of articles and animals
130(1) and (4) to (8)		Requirements for parachuting
130(2)		Person not to be dropped so as to endanger persons or property
131(1) and (4) to (7)		Requirements for aerial application
140		Smoking in aircraft
141		Requirement to comply with lawful commands of commander of aircraft
142(a) & (b)		Acting in a disruptive manner
143		Stowaways
145(3)		Operator’s obligation to obtain flight time records of flight crew
146(2)		Flight crew member’s obligation to inform operator of flight times
147		Flight times – responsibilities of flight crew
152		Use of flight recording systems
153		Preservation of records of aeroplane flight data recorder
154		Preservation of records of helicopter flight data recorder
155		Preservation of records of helicopter cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder
160(2)		Requirement to comply with Rules of the Air
161(4)		Requirement to comply with Restriction of Flying Regulations
161(5)		Requirement to leave restricted area
161(6)		Requirement to comply with instructions in restricted area or danger area
162(1) to (5) and (17)		Requirements for flying displays
163		Requirements for balloons
164		Requirements for gliders, kites and parascending parachutes
165		Requirements for airships
166		Requirements for small unmanned aircraft
167		Requirements for small unmanned surveillance aircraft
168		Requirements for rockets
170		Duty of person in charge to be satisfied as to competence of controllers
171		Requirement for Manual of Air Traffic Services
172		Requirement to provide air traffic services
173(5)		Requirement to comply with air traffic direction
173(7)		Requirement to comply with provisional air traffic direction
174(4)		Requirement to comply with direction for airspace policy purposes
175		Use of radio callsigns at aerodromes
202(1)(a)		Requirement for flight information service officer’s licence
202(1)(b)		Requirement to identify as flight information service officer
204		Requirement for flight information service manual
205(1)		Requirement for approval for air traffic service equipment
206(2)		Provision of recording apparatus
207		Requirement to use licensed or Government aerodrome
209		Lighting for helicopters flying for public transport at night
211(4)		Requirement to comply with aerodrome licence conditions
211(5)		Requirement to take reasonable steps to secure airspace safe for use by aircraft
211(7) to (10)		Requirements for aerodrome manual
217(1) and (2)		Obligations of person having management of fuel installation on an aerodrome
217(4) and (5)		Requirements to keep and produce records for fuel installation
218(1) and (3)		Requirements for aeronautical lights
219(2) to (5)		Requirements for lighting of en-route obstacles
220(2), (4) to (7) and (9)		Requirements for lighting of wind turbine generators in United Kingdom territorial waters
221(1) and (2)		Lights liable to endanger not to be exhibited
222		Lights which dazzle or distract not to be shone
227		Requirements to report bird strikes
237		Compliance with direction to make data available
239		Person not to obstruct or impede

SECTION 2

Provision of Part 21, M, 145, 66 or 147	Subject Matter
21A.3(b) and (c)	Reporting of investigation of failures, malfunctions and defects
21A.3B(c)	Airworthiness directives – obligation to propose and make available corrective action
21A.129	Obligations of manufacturer
21A.165	Obligations of a production organisation approval holder
21A.727	Obligations of the holder of a permit to fly
M.A.202	Occurrence reporting
M.A.303	Carrying out airworthiness directives
M.A.305	Aircraft continuing airworthiness record system
M.A.306	Operator’s technical log system
M.A.708	Continuing airworthiness management
M.A.710	Conduct of airworthiness review
145.A.50	Certification of release to service for maintenance
145.A.55	Maintenance records to be kept by organisation approved under Part 145
145.A.60	Occurrence reporting

SECTION 3

Provision of EU-OPS	Subject Matter
1.030	Operator to establish and operate in accordance with minimum equipment list
1.070	Carriage of sporting weapons and ammunition
1.075	Carriage of person in part of aeroplane not designed for that purpose
1.085(f) 7, 8, 10, and 12	Responsibilities of commander
1.160	Preservation, production and use of flight recorder recordings
1.240	Operator’s responsibilities in relation to routes and areas of operation
1.241	Operation in airspace with reduced vertical separation minima
1.243	Operation in areas with specific navigation performance requirements
1.245	Operation at distance from nearest aerodrome of two engined aeroplane without ETOPS approval
1.246	Requirement for ETOPS approval
1.285	Requirement for passenger briefing
1.290(b)	Flight preparation by commander
1.310(a)1 and 2	Flight crew to remain at station
1.320	Crew and passengers to be secured
1.398	Use of airborne collision avoidance system
1.430	Aerodrome operating minima
1.470	Performance requirements
1.605	Requirements for loading, mass and balance and centre of gravity
1.625	Mass and balance documentation
1.630(a)	Instruments and equipment required for flight
1.845(a)	Communication and navigation equipment required for flight
1.875	Aeroplane maintenance requirements
1.940	Composition of flight crew
1.943	Crew resource management training
1.945	Conversion training and checking
1.950	Differences and familiarisation training
1.960	Commanders holding a Commercial Pilot Licence – operator’s obligations
1.965	Training and checking crew
1.990	Number and composition of cabin crew
1.1040	Operations manual requirements
1.1100	Flight and duty limitations
1.1195	Requirements for acceptance of dangerous goods
1.1200(a)	Inspection for damage, leakage or contamination
1.1205(a)	Removal of contamination
1.1205(b)	Steps to be taken in the event of contamination
1.1210	Loading restrictions
1.1215	Provision of information
1.1220	Training requirements
1.1225	Reporting of dangerous goods incidents and accidents

PART CProvisions referred to in article 241(7)

SECTION 1

Article of Order	Subject Matter
11		Aircraft not to fly for commercial air transport without EU-OPS AOC
12(1)		Aircraft not to fly for public transport without national AOC or EU-OPS AOC
13(4)		Aircraft not to fly in the service of a police authority except under a Police Air Operator’s Certificate, a national Air Operator’s Certificate or an EU-OPS Air Operator Certificate
16(1)		Aircraft not to fly without a certificate of airworthiness
16(7)		Aircraft to comply with flight manual
17(2)		Non-military State aircraft to have a national certificate of airworthiness or an EASA certificate of airworthiness
17(3)		Requirements for non-military State aircraft with EASA certificate of airworthiness
50(1)		Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
61		Requirement for appropriate licence to act member of flight crew of aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
120		Obligations of operator and commander when flying over foreign country
132(2)		Requirement to comply with regulations for the carriage of dangerous goods
133(2)		Requirements for carriage of munitions of war
133(3)		Prohibition on carriage of sporting weapon or munition of war where passengers have access
134		Prohibition on carrying on board sporting weapons or munitions of war
138		Endangering safety of any person or property
139		Drunkenness in aircraft
142(c)		Intentional interference
149		Fatigue of crew – EU-OPS operator’s responsibilities
145(1)		Operator’s obligation to regulate flight times of crew
145(2)		Operator’s obligation not permit flight by crew in dangerous state of fatigue
146(1)		Crew’s obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
148		Protection of air crew from cosmic radiation
151		Keeping and production of records of exposure to cosmic radiation
169(1)		Requirement for air traffic control approval
177(1)		Requirement to hold air traffic controller’s licence
178		Requirement to hold student air traffic controller’s licence
193		Obligation not to act as air traffic controller or student air traffic controller if fatigued
194		Student air traffic controller not to act under influence of drink or drug
217(6)		Aviation fuel not to be dispensed if not fit for use
217(7)		Compliance with direction not to dispense aviation fuel
223		Restrictions on carriage for valuable consideration in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
225		Restriction on aerial photography, aerial survey and aerial work in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
226(5) to (8)		Requirements to report occurrences
231 (except (2) and (5))		Prohibitions in relation to documents and records
232(3)		Flight in contravention of CAA’s direction not to fly
233		Flight by third country aircraft in contravention of direction not to fly
236(3)		Flight in contravention of Secretary of State’s direction not to fly

SECTION 2

Provision of Part 21, M, 145, 66 or 147	Subject Matter
M.A.201(a) and (b)	Responsibilities of owner or lessee
M.A.201(d)	Responsibilities of the pilot in command or operator
M.A.201(e) & (f)	Responsibilities of continuing airworthiness management organisation
M.A.201(h)	Obligations of commercial air transport operator
M.A.201(i)	Obligations of certificated operator
M.A.403	Aircraft defects to be rectified
M.A.902(b)	Aircraft not to fly if airworthiness review certificate invalid

SECTION 3

Provision of EU-OPS	Subject Matter
1.065	Prohibition of carriage of weapons or munitions of war
1.085(d) 4 and 5	Crew member’s obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
1.390(a) 1 to 4	Protection of crew from cosmic radiation
1.1090 paragraphs 1 to 3	Operator’s obligations for flight and duty time limitations and rest scheme
1.1090 paragraph 4.1	Crew member not to operate when fatigued or unfit
1.1145	Operator to comply with Technical Instructions
1.1155(a)	Operator to hold approval to transport dangerous goods
1.1165	Operator not to carry dangerous goods forbidden for transport by air

PART DProvisions referred to in article 241(8)

Article of Order	Subject Matter
137	Endangering safety of an aircraft

Article 248(1)

SCHEDULE 14Parts of straits specified in connection with the flight of aircraft in transit over United Kingdom territorial waters

1. The parts of straits specified in paragraph 2 are specified for the purposes of article 248(1).

2.—(1) In the Straits of Dover, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—

(a)to the south of a rhumb line joining position 51°08’23” north latitude: 1°23’00” east longitude and position 51°22’41” north latitude: 1°50’06” east longitude; and

(b)to the east of a rhumb line joining position 50°54’33” north latitude: 0°58’05” east longitude and position 50°43’15” north latitude: 0°51’39” east longitude;

(2) In the North Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—

(a)to the north of a rhumb line joining position 54°13’30” north latitude: 5°39’28” west longitude and position 54°09’02” north latitude: 5°18’07” west longitude;

(b)to the west of a rhumb line joining position 54°26’02” north latitude: 4°51’37” west longitude and position 54°38’01” north latitude: 4°51’16” west longitude; and

(c)to the east of a rhumb line joining—

(i)position 55°40’24” north latitude: 6°30’59” west longitude and position 55°29’24” north latitude: 6°40’31” west longitude;

(ii)position 55°24’54” north latitude: 6°44’33” west longitude and position 55°10’15” north latitude: 6°44’33” west longitude;

(3) In the Fair Isle Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—

(a)to the north of a rhumb line joining position 59°10’54” north latitude: 2°01’32” west longitude and position 59°33’27” north latitude: 2°38’35” west longitude; and

(b)to the south of a rhumb line joining position 59°51’06” north latitude: 0°52’10” west longitude and position 59°51’06” north latitude: 1°46’36” west longitude.

(1)

S.I. 2007/734 to which there are amendments not relevant to this provision.

(2)

A gyroplane is designated as performance group A or B according to its ability to continue a flight in the event of engine failure.

(3)

SI 1980/538.

(4)

Annex 10 is published by the International Civil Aviation Organisation. For availability see Explanatory Note.

(5)

Scale E1 was formerly defined as secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit. There is no longer any requirement to carry Scale E1 but some aircraft may continue to carry it under a transitional exemption issued by the CAA.

(6)

S.I. 2007/734 to which there are amendments not relevant to this provision.

(7)

2006 c.36.

(8)

An EASA aircraft is required by virtue of Part 21 to carry its certificate of airworthiness or restricted certificate of airworthiness during all flights.

(9)

1982 c.16; section 108(1) was amended by the Airports Act 1986 c.31, section 83(1) and Schedule 4, paragraph 8(2).

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The Air Navigation Order 2009

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SCHEDULE 1Revocations

SCHEDULE 2A and B Conditions and categories of certificate of airworthiness

PART A

SECTION 1A Conditions

SECTION 2B Conditions

PART BCategories of certificate of airworthiness and purposes for which aircraft may fly

SCHEDULE 3Classification and marking of aircraft and dealer certification

PART 1Classification of aircraft

PART 2Conditions in aircraft dealer’s certificate

PART 3Nationality and registration marks of aircraft registered in the United Kingdom

General

Position and size of marks – heavier than air aircraft

Position and size of marks – airships and free balloons

Width, spacing and thickness of marks

SCHEDULE 4Aircraft equipment

SCHEDULE 5Radio communication and radio navigation equipment to be carried in aircraft

SCHEDULE 6Aircraft, engine and propeller log books

Aircraft log book

Engine log book

Variable pitch propeller log book

SCHEDULE 7Flight crew of aircraft – licences, ratings, qualifications and maintenance of licence privileges

PART AFlight crew licences

SECTION 1United Kingdom Licences

SUB-SECTION 1Aeroplane pilots

Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Basic Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

SUB-SECTION 2Helicopter and gyroplane pilots

Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters)

Private Pilot’s Licence (Gyroplanes)

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

SUB-SECTION 3Balloon and airship pilots

Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships)

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons)

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Airships)

SUB-SECTION 4Glider pilots

Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Gliders)

SUB-SECTION 5Other flight crew

Flight Navigator’s Licence

Flight Engineer’s Licence

Flight Radiotelephony Operator’s Licence

SECTION 2JAR-FCL Licences

SUB-SECTION 1Aeroplane pilots

Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

SUB-SECTION 2Helicopter pilots

Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter)

Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter)

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopter)

SECTION 3National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes)

Flight outside the United Kingdom

Flight for purpose of commercial air transport, public transport and aerial work

Receipt of remuneration

Prohibitions on flight in specified conditions

Carriage of persons

PART BRatings and qualifications

SECTION 1Ratings and qualifications which may be included in United Kingdom Licences and JAR-FCL Licences but not in National Private Pilot’s Licences (Aeroplanes)

SUB-SECTION 1Aircraft ratings

SUB-SECTION 2Other ratings

SECTION 2Aircraft and instructor ratings which may be included in United Kingdom Licences, JAR-FCL Licences and National Private Pilot’s Licences (Aeroplanes)

PART CMaintenance of licence privileges

SECTION 1Requirement for Certificate of Test or Experience

Appropriateness of certificate

Certificate of test

Nature of test

Period of validity of certificate of test

Certificate of experience