- Latest available (Revised)
- Original (As enacted)
This is the original version (as it was originally enacted).
Section 3
1(1)For the purposes of this Act, a person is an “owner” of a club if—
(a)the person is an individual or a registered society, and
(b)one or more of the conditions in paragraph 2 are met in relation to the person.
(2)In the case of a club that is a registered society, if there is no individual in relation to whom one or more of the conditions in paragraph 2 are met, the registered society itself is the owner of the club.
2(1)Condition 1 is that the person has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, significant influence or control over the activities of the club (in whole or in part).
(2)Condition 2 is that the person holds, directly or indirectly, more than 25% of the shares in the club.
(3)Condition 3 is that the person holds, directly or indirectly, more than 25% of the voting rights in the club.
(4)Condition 4 is that the person holds the right, directly or indirectly, to appoint or remove an officer of the club.
(5)Condition 5 is that—
(a)the trustees of a trust, or the members of a partnership, unincorporated association or other body, that is not a legal person under the law by which it is governed would meet one or more of conditions 1 to 4 (in their capacity as such) in relation to the club if the references in those conditions to a “person” were to the trustees or members, and
(b)the person has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, significant influence or control over the activities of that trust or body (in whole or in part).
3This Part makes provision about the interpretation of this Schedule.
4If a person holds a share or right jointly with another person (whether or not the other person is an individual or a registered society), each of those persons is to be taken to hold that share or right.
5(1)If shares or rights held by a person and shares or rights held by another person (whether or not the other person is an individual or a registered society) are the subject of a joint arrangement between those persons, each of those persons is to be taken to hold the combined shares or rights of both persons.
(2)A “joint arrangement” is an arrangement between the holders of shares (or rights) that they will exercise all or substantially all the rights conferred by their respective shares (or rights) jointly in a way that is pre-determined by the arrangement.
(3)For the meaning of “arrangement”, see paragraph 12.
6(1)In relation to a club that has a share capital, a reference to holding more than 25% of the shares in the club is to holding shares comprised in the issued share capital of the club of a nominal value exceeding (in aggregate) 25% of that share capital.
(2)In relation to a club that does not have a share capital—
(a)a reference to holding shares in the club is to be read as a reference to holding a right to share in the capital or, as the case may be, profits of the club;
(b)a reference to holding more than 25% of the shares in the club is to be read as a reference to holding a right or rights to share in more than 25% of the capital or, as the case may be, profits of the club.
7(1)A reference to the voting rights in a person is to the rights conferred on shareholders in respect of their shares (or, in the case of a person not having a share capital, on members) to vote at general meetings of the person on all or substantially all matters.
(2)In relation to a person that does not have general meetings at which matters are decided by the exercise of voting rights—
(a)a reference to holding voting rights in the person is to be read as a reference to holding rights in relation to the person that are equivalent to those of a person entitled to exercise voting rights in a company;
(b)a reference to holding more than 25% of the voting rights in the person is to be read as a reference to holding the rights under the constitution of the person to block changes to the overall policy of the person or to the terms of its constitution.
8In applying this Schedule, voting rights in a person held by the person itself are to be disregarded.
9(1)A person (“A”) holds a share “indirectly” if A has a majority stake in a person (“B”) and B—
(a)holds the share, or
(b)is part of a chain of persons—
(i)each of which (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
(ii)the last of which holds the share.
(2)A person (“A”) holds a right “indirectly” if A has a majority stake in a person (“B”) and B—
(a)holds that right, or
(b)is part of a chain of persons—
(i)each of which (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
(ii)the last of which holds that right.
(3)For the purposes of sub-paragraphs (1) and (2), A has a “majority stake” in B if A—
(a)holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
(b)is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove an officer of B,
(c)is a member of B and controls alone, or pursuant to an agreement with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights in B, or
(d)has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence or control over B.
10A share held by a person as a nominee for another is to be treated as held by the other (and not by the nominee).
11(1)Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated as held by that person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that person also controls it).
(2)A person “controls” a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that person and others, the right is exercisable only—
(a)by that person,
(b)in accordance with that person’s directions or instructions, or
(c)with that person’s consent or concurrence.
12(1)For the purposes of this Schedule “arrangement” includes—
(a)any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally enforceable, and
(b)any convention, custom or practice of any kind.
(2)But something does not count as an arrangement unless there is at least some degree of stability about it (whether by its nature or terms, the time it has been in existence or otherwise).
13(1)Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken into account only—
(a)where the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they continue to obtain, or
(b)when the circumstances are within the control of the person having the rights.
(2)But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a person is in relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account even while the person is in those proceedings.
(3)In this paragraph, “relevant insolvency proceedings” means—
(a)administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986,
(b)administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I. 19)), or
(c)proceedings under the insolvency law of another country or territory during which a person’s assets and affairs are subject to the control or supervision of a third party or creditor.
(4)Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise are to continue to be taken into account.
14Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person are to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person—
(a)where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in accordance with that person’s instructions, and
(b)where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person’s interests.
15(1)The Secretary of State must prepare and publish guidance about the meaning of significant influence or control for the purposes of this Schedule.
(2)Regard must be had to that guidance in interpreting references in this Schedule to that phrase.
(3)Before publishing guidance under this paragraph the Secretary of State must lay a draft of it before Parliament.
(4)If, within the 40-day period, either House of Parliament resolves not to approve the draft guidance, the Secretary of State must take no further steps in relation to it.
(5)If no such resolution is made within that period, the Secretary of State must publish the guidance in the form of the draft.
(6)Sub-paragraph (4) does not prevent a new draft of proposed guidance from being laid before Parliament.
(7)In this paragraph “the 40-day period”, in relation to draft guidance, means the period of 40 days beginning with the day on which the draft is laid before Parliament (or, if it is not laid before each House on the same day, the later of the days on which it is laid).
(8)In calculating the 40-day period, no account is to be taken of any period during which—
(a)Parliament is dissolved or prorogued, or
(b)both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
(9)The Secretary of State may revise guidance published under this paragraph, and a reference in this paragraph to guidance includes a reference to revised guidance.
16(1)The Secretary of State may by regulations amend this Schedule for a permitted purpose.
(2)The permitted purposes are—
(a)to replace any reference in this Schedule to a percentage figure with a reference to some other (larger or smaller) percentage figure;
(b)to amend Part 1 of this Schedule so as to include circumstances (for example, circumstances involving more complex structures) that give a person a level of influence or control over a club broadly similar to the level of influence or control given by the conditions in paragraph 2;
(c)in consequence of any provision made by virtue of paragraph (b), to amend Part 2 of this Schedule so that circumstances specified in that Part in which a person is to be regarded as holding an interest in another person correspond to any of the conditions in paragraph 2, or would do so but for the extent of the interest.
(3)Before making regulations under this paragraph the Secretary of State must consult the IFR.
Section 5
1(1)Until the end of the initial period, the IFR is to consist only of the Board.
(2)After the initial period ends, the IFR is to consist of—
(a)the Board, and
(b)the Expert Panel.
(3)In this paragraph the “initial period” means the period which—
(a)begins with the commencement of this Act, and
(b)ends with the time when an appointment of a member of the Expert Panel takes effect that brings the number of members of the Expert Panel up to the number that the Chief Executive Officer has determined in accordance with paragraph 23.
2(1)The Board is to consist of—
(a)the non-executive members, and
(b)the executive members.
(2)The non-executive members are—
(a)a chair, and
(b)up to seven other members.
(3)The executive members are—
(a)the Chief Executive Officer,
(b)the Chief Finance Officer, and
(c)one other member.
(4)The executive members are to be members of the IFR’s staff.
3(1)The non-executive members are to be appointed by the Secretary of State.
(2)A person may not be appointed as a non-executive member if the person is a member of the IFR’s staff.
4(1)The chair may appoint any other non-executive member to be the deputy chair.
(2)Before appointing a person as the deputy chair, the chair must consult the Secretary of State.
(3)The deputy chair may carry out the functions of the chair in such cases and in such manner as may be determined by or in accordance with any directions given by the chair.
5(1)The Chief Executive Officer is to be appointed by the chair.
(2)The other executive members are to be appointed by the Chief Executive Officer.
(3)Before appointing a person as the Chief Executive Officer, the chair must consult—
(a)the Secretary of State, and
(b)the non-executive members.
6(1)A person (“A”) may not be appointed as a member of the Board unless the person appointing A is satisfied that A does not have a conflict of interest.
(2)A person who appointed a member of the Board must, from time to time, check that none of the members appointed by them has a conflict of interest.
(3)A person who appointed a member of the Board may require a member appointed by them to provide whatever information the person considers necessary for the purpose of checking that the member does not have a conflict of interest.
(4)A member of the Board who is required to provide information under sub-paragraph (3) must provide it within such period as may be specified by the person who appointed them.
7(1)The IFR must establish and maintain a system for the declaration and registration of relevant interests of members of the Board.
(2)In this paragraph “relevant interest”, in relation to a member of the Board, means a financial or other interest that may be relevant to the IFR’s exercise of its functions under this Act.
8(1)A non-executive member of the Board holds and vacates office in accordance with that person’s terms of appointment, subject to this paragraph and paragraph 9.
(2)Any appointment of a non-executive member must be for a fixed term of not more than five years.
(3)But a person may be appointed as a non-executive member more than once.
(4)A person may resign as a non-executive member by notifying the Secretary of State.
(5)A person ceases to be a non-executive member upon becoming a member of the IFR’s staff.
9A non-executive member of the Board may be removed from office as a member of the Board if the Secretary of State is satisfied that the person—
(a)is guilty of serious misconduct;
(b)has a conflict of interest;
(c)has failed to comply with paragraph 6(4);
(d)is unable, unfit or unwilling to carry out their functions as a member of the Board.
10(1)The IFR must pay its non-executive members such remuneration as the Secretary of State may determine.
(2)The IFR must pay, or make provision for paying, to or in respect of a person who is or has been a non-executive member of the Board, such sums as the Secretary of State may determine in respect of allowances or expenses.
11(1)The Board may—
(a)appoint employees, and
(b)make such other arrangements for the staffing of the IFR as it considers appropriate, including arrangements for persons to be seconded to the IFR.
(2)This paragraph is subject to paragraph 12.
12(1)The terms on which executive members are, by virtue of paragraph 2(4), to become, or continue to be—
(a)persons seconded to the IFR under paragraph 11(1)(b), or
(b)employees of the IFR,
are to be determined by the non-executive members, subject to paragraph 13.
(2)The terms of employment of employees are to be determined by the non-executive members.
(3)The IFR must pay its employees such remuneration as may be determined by the non-executive members.
(4)The IFR must pay, or make provision for paying, to or in respect of an executive member of the IFR, or a member of the IFR’s staff—
(a)such sums in respect of pensions, allowances or gratuities relating to service as an executive member, or member of staff, as may be determined by the non-executive members, and
(b)such sums in respect of allowances or expenses as may be determined by the non-executive members.
13(1)A person may resign as an executive member by notifying the chair.
(2)A person ceases to be an executive member upon ceasing to be a member of the IFR’s staff.
(3)An executive member may be removed from office as a member of the Board if the person who appointed them is satisfied that the person—
(a)is guilty of serious misconduct;
(b)has a conflict of interest;
(c)has failed to comply with paragraph 6(4);
(d)is unable, unfit or unwilling to carry out their functions as an executive member.
14Except where otherwise provided by this Act (see section 82 and paragraphs 18 to 21), the functions of the IFR are exercisable by the Board on behalf of the IFR.
15(1)The Board may establish committees.
(2)A committee established under sub-paragraph (1) may establish sub-committees.
(3)A committee or sub-committee of the Board may include or consist of persons who are neither non-executive members nor executive members.
16(1)The Board may determine its own procedure and the procedure of any committee or sub-committee, subject to this paragraph.
(2)The quorum for a meeting of the Board is to be determined by the chair but a meeting of the Board is not quorate unless—
(a)the chair or deputy chair is in attendance, and
(b)(including the chair or deputy chair) at least half of the Board’s members are in attendance.
(3)A member of the Board may at any time resign from a committee of the Board by giving written notice to the chair.
(4)The chair may remove a person from membership of a committee of the Board if the chair considers that—
(a)the person will be unable, for a substantial period, to perform their duties as a member of the committee, or
(b)because of a particular interest of the member of the committee, it is inappropriate for them to remain a member of the committee.
(5)Where a person ceases to be a member of a committee of the Board, the chair may select a replacement member of the committee from the Board.
(6)The validity of proceedings of the Board, or a committee or sub-committee of the Board, is not affected by a vacancy or defective appointment.
17(1)This paragraph applies if—
(a)a member of the Board has a direct or indirect interest in a matter falling to be considered at a meeting of the Board, or
(b)a member of a committee of the Board has a direct or indirect interest in a matter falling to be considered at a meeting of the committee of the Board.
(2)The member with the interest must declare it.
(3)The declaration must be recorded in the minutes of the meeting.
(4)The member with the interest may not take part in a discussion or decision at the meeting relating to the matter, unless—
(a)in the case of a meeting of the Board, the other members of the Board who are present have resolved unanimously that the interest is to be disregarded, or
(b)in the case of a meeting of a committee of the Board, the other members of the committee who are present have resolved in the manner authorised by the Board that the interest is to be disregarded.
(5)For the purposes of this paragraph, a notification given at or sent to a meeting mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) that a person—
(a)is a member of a company or firm, and
(b)is to be regarded as interested in any matter involving that company or firm,
is to be regarded as compliance with sub-paragraph (2) in relation to any such matter for the purposes of that meeting and subsequent meetings of the Board or the committee of the Board.
(6)A notification described in sub-paragraph (5) remains in force until it is withdrawn.
(7)A person required to make a declaration for the purposes of this paragraph in relation to any meeting—
(a)is not required to attend the meeting, but
(b)is to be taken to have complied with the requirements of this paragraph if the person takes reasonable steps to secure that notice of the person’s interest is read out, and taken into consideration, at the meeting in question.
(8)See section 82(10) and (11) for related provision (persons who can carry out internal reviews).
18(1)Subject to paragraph 20, the Board may delegate any of its functions to—
(a)a member of the Board,
(b)a member of the IFR’s staff,
(c)a committee established by the Board, or
(d)the Expert Panel.
(2)A function is delegated under this paragraph to the extent and on the terms that the Board determines.
19(1)Subject to paragraph 20, a committee established by the Board may delegate any of its functions to—
(a)a member of the committee, or
(b)a sub-committee established by it.
(2)A function is delegated under this paragraph to the extent and on the terms that the committee of the Board determines.
(3)The power of a committee established by the Board to delegate a function under this paragraph, and to determine the extent and terms of the delegation, is subject to the Board’s power to direct what a committee established by it may and may not do.
20(1)The following functions of the Board may be delegated by it only to a committee established by it—
(a)the function of revoking a provisional operating licence under section 19;
(b)the function of making a determination under Part 4 in relation to a person;
(c)the function of making an order under section 38 or 43;
(d)the function of specifying a competition as a prohibited competition under section 45;
(e)the function of deciding whether the resolution process should be triggered under section 59;
(f)the function of making a distribution order under section 62;
(g)the function of suspending or revoking an operating licence under paragraph 9 of Schedule 9;
(h)the function of carrying out a review requested under section 82 of any decision made by virtue of the exercise of a function mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (g).
(2)A committee of the Board to which a function is delegated under this paragraph may not further delegate the function.
21The delegation of a function by the Board under paragraph 18 or 20, or by a committee of the Board under paragraph 19, does not prevent the Board or a committee of the Board (as the case may be) from exercising the function.
22The Board must make arrangements for the keeping of proper records of—
(a)its proceedings,
(b)the proceedings of a committee of the Board, and
(c)anything done by a person or committee to which the Board has delegated functions under paragraph 18(1).
23(1)The number of members of the Expert Panel is to be determined by the Chief Executive Officer.
(2)The number must not be less than six.
(3)The Secretary of State may by regulations amend the number for the time being mentioned in sub-paragraph (2).
24(1)The members of the Expert Panel are to be appointed by the Chief Executive Officer.
(2)The Chief Executive Officer must exercise the power in sub-paragraph (1) so as to secure that the range of skills, knowledge and experience of the members of the Expert Panel (taken together) includes skills, knowledge and experience in relation to—
(a)the operation, organisation or governance of clubs or competitions, and
(b)financial or other regulation.
(3)A person (“A”) may not be appointed as a member of the Expert Panel unless the Chief Executive Officer is satisfied that A does not have a conflict of interest.
(4)The Chief Executive Officer must, from time to time, check that none of the members of the Expert Panel has a conflict of interest.
(5)The Chief Executive Officer may require a member of the Expert Panel to provide whatever information the Chief Executive Officer considers necessary for the purpose of checking that the member does not have a conflict of interest.
(6)A member of the Expert Panel who is required to provide information under sub-paragraph (5) must provide it within such period as may be specified by the Chief Executive Officer.
25(1)The IFR must establish and maintain a system for the declaration and registration of relevant interests of members of the Expert Panel.
(2)In this paragraph “relevant interest”, in relation to a member of the Expert Panel, means a financial or other interest that may be relevant to the IFR’s exercise of its functions under this Act.
26(1)A member of the Expert Panel holds and vacates their membership in accordance with that person’s terms of appointment, subject to sub-paragraph (2).
(2)A member of the Expert Panel may be removed from office as such a member if the Chief Executive Officer is satisfied that the person—
(a)is guilty of serious misconduct;
(b)has a conflict of interest;
(c)has failed to comply with paragraph 24(6);
(d)is unable, unfit or unwilling to carry out their functions as a member of the Expert Panel.
(3)The IFR may pay such remuneration or allowances to persons appointed to the Expert Panel as the Chief Executive Officer may determine.
27Where the Board delegates a function to the Expert Panel (see paragraph 18), the Chief Executive Officer must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the Board delegates the function, establish a committee of the Expert Panel to carry out the function.
28(1)The Chief Executive Officer must establish committees of the Expert Panel where required to so by this Act (see section 82 and paragraph 27).
(2)The Chief Executive Officer may establish other committees of the Expert Panel.
(3)Each committee of the Expert Panel must consist of at least three members of the Expert Panel appearing to the Chief Executive Officer to have skills, knowledge or experience relating to the function which is to be exercised by the committee.
(4)The Chief Executive Officer must appoint one of the members of the committee of the Expert Panel to chair the committee.
(5)A committee of the Expert Panel may only consist of persons who are members of the Expert Panel.
29(1)The Expert Panel may determine its own procedure and the procedure of any committee.
(2)A member of the Expert Panel may at any time resign from a committee of the Expert Panel by giving notice to the Chief Executive Officer.
(3)The Chief Executive Officer may remove a person from membership of a committee of the Expert Panel if the Chief Executive Officer considers that—
(a)the person will be unable, for a substantial period, to perform their duties as a member of the committee, or
(b)because of a particular interest of the member of the committee, it is inappropriate for them to remain a member of the committee.
(4)Where a person ceases to be a member of a committee of the Expert Panel, the Chief Executive Officer may select a replacement member of the committee from the Expert Panel.
(5)A person’s ceasing to be a member of a committee of the Expert Panel does not—
(a)prevent the committee from continuing with anything begun before the person ceased to be a member of it, or
(b)affect anything done by the person or the committee before the person ceased to be a member of it (unless the Chief Executive Officer directs otherwise).
30(1)In exercising its functions, the Expert Panel must act independently of the Board.
(2)But sub-paragraph (1) does not prevent—
(a)the Board giving information in its possession to the Expert Panel (and the Expert Panel having regard to that information), or
(b)the Expert Panel giving information in its possession to the Board.
31(1)This paragraph applies if a member of a committee of the Expert Panel has a direct or indirect interest in a matter falling to be considered at a meeting of that committee.
(2)The member with the interest must declare it.
(3)The declaration must be recorded in the minutes of the meeting.
(4)The member with the interest may not take part in a discussion or decision at the meeting relating to the matter, unless the other members of the committee who are present have resolved in the manner authorised by the Chief Executive Officer that the interest is to be disregarded.
(5)For the purposes of this paragraph, a notification given at or sent to a meeting mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) that a person—
(a)is a member of a company or firm, and
(b)is to be regarded as interested in any matter involving that company or firm,
is to be regarded as compliance with sub-paragraph (2) in relation to any such matter for the purposes of that meeting and subsequent meetings of the committee of the Expert Panel.
(6)A notification described in sub-paragraph (5) remains in force until it is withdrawn.
(7)A person required to make a declaration for the purposes of this paragraph in relation to any meeting—
(a)is not required to attend the meeting, but
(b)is to be taken to have complied with the requirements of this paragraph if the person takes reasonable steps to secure that notice of the person’s interest is read out, and taken into consideration, at the meeting in question.
(8)See section 82(10) and (11) for related provision (persons who can carry out internal reviews).
32The Chief Executive Officer must make arrangements for the keeping of proper records of the proceedings of a committee of the Expert Panel.
33The Secretary of State must appoint a representative of the Football Association as an independent observer of the IFR’s proceedings.
34(1)The IFR must—
(a)keep proper accounts and proper records in relation to them, and
(b)prepare a statement of accounts in respect of each financial year.
(2)Each statement of accounts must comply with any directions given by the Secretary of State as to—
(a)its content and form;
(b)the methods and principles to be applied in preparing it;
(c)the additional information (if any) which is to be provided for the information of Parliament.
(3)The IFR must send a copy of each statement of accounts to the Secretary of State and the Comptroller and Auditor General as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of the financial year to which the statement relates.
(4)The Comptroller and Auditor General must—
(a)examine, certify and report on each statement of accounts, and
(b)send a copy of each report and certified statement to the Secretary of State.
(5)The Secretary of State must lay before Parliament a copy of each document mentioned in sub-paragraph (4)(b).
(6)In this paragraph, “financial year” means—
(a)the period beginning with the day on which this Schedule comes into force and ending with 31 March in the following year, and
(b)each successive period of 12 months.
35(1)The application of the IFR’s seal must be authenticated by the signature of—
(a)a member, or
(b)another person authorised for that purpose by the Board.
(2)A document purporting to be duly executed under the IFR’s seal or signed on its behalf—
(a)is to be received in evidence, and
(b)is to be taken to be executed or signed in that way, unless the contrary is shown.
36(1)The IFR is not to be regarded—
(a)as the servant or agent of the Crown, or
(b)as enjoying any status, immunity or privilege of the Crown.
(2)The IFR’s property is not to be regarded—
(a)as the property of the Crown, or
(b)as property held on behalf of the Crown.
37(1)The IFR may do anything which it considers will facilitate, or is incidental or conducive to, the carrying out of its functions under this Act.
(2)But (subject to paragraph 38) the IFR may not borrow money.
38(1)The Secretary of State may provide to the IFR such financial assistance as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
(2)Financial assistance under this paragraph may be provided subject to such conditions as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
Section 9
1(1)The Secretary of State may make one or more property transfer schemes or staff transfer schemes.
(2)A “property transfer scheme” is a scheme for the transfer to the IFR from the Secretary of State of any property, rights or liabilities, other than rights or liabilities under or in connection with a contract of employment.
(3)A “staff transfer scheme” is a scheme for the transfer to the IFR from the Secretary of State of any rights or liabilities under or in connection with a contract of employment.
2(1)The things that may be transferred under a property transfer scheme or a staff transfer scheme include—
(a)property, rights and liabilities that could not otherwise be transferred;
(b)property acquired, and rights and liabilities arising, after the making of the scheme;
(c)criminal liabilities.
(2)A property transfer scheme or a staff transfer scheme may make supplementary, incidental, transitional or consequential provision and may, in particular—
(a)create rights, or impose liabilities, in relation to property or rights transferred;
(b)make provision about the continuing effect of things done by the Secretary of State in respect of anything transferred;
(c)make provision about the continuation of things (including legal proceedings) in the process of being done by, on behalf of, or in relation to, the Secretary of State in respect of anything transferred;
(d)make provision for references to the Secretary of State in an instrument or other document in respect of anything transferred to be treated as references to the IFR.
(3)A property transfer scheme may make provision for the shared ownership or use of property.
(4)A staff transfer scheme may make provision which is the same as or similar to the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 2006 (S.I. 2006/246).
3For the purposes of this Schedule—
(a)an individual who holds employment in the civil service of the State is to be treated as employed by virtue of a contract of employment, and
(b)the terms of the individual’s employment in the civil service are to be regarded as constituting the terms of the contract of employment.
Section 18
1The threshold requirements are—
(a)the financial resources threshold requirement (see paragraph 2),
(b)the non-financial resources threshold requirement (see paragraph 3), and
(c)the fan engagement threshold requirement (see paragraph 4).
2(1)The financial resources threshold requirement is met, in relation to a club, if the financial resources of the club are appropriate in relation to the activities the club carries on or seeks to carry on.
(2)In considering whether a club has appropriate financial resources, the IFR may have regard to (among other things)—
(a)the corporate structure of the club and, where the club is part of a group, the group;
(b)the club’s latest financial plan (see paragraph 2 of Schedule 5), including in particular—
(i)any financial risks identified in the plan, and
(ii)any plans described in the plan for managing those risks;
(c)the club’s strategic business plan (see section 16(5));
(d)the specified competition in relation to which a relevant team is operated by the club;
(e)any other competitions in relation to which a team is operated by the club;
(f)the club’s non-financial resources.
3(1)The non-financial resources threshold requirement is met, in relation to a club, if the non-financial resources of the club are appropriate in relation to the activities the club carries on or seeks to carry on.
(2)In considering whether a club has appropriate non-financial resources, the IFR may have regard to (among other things)—
(a)the corporate structure of the club and, where the club is part of a group, the group;
(b)the qualifications, experience, training and performance of the club’s owners and officers;
(c)the club’s corporate governance arrangements, including the club’s latest corporate governance statement (see paragraph 4 of Schedule 5);
(d)the specified competition in relation to which a relevant team is operated by the club;
(e)any other competitions in relation to which a team is operated by the club;
(f)the club’s financial resources.
4(1)The fan engagement threshold requirement is met, in relation to a club, if the club has adequate and effective means by which—
(a)the club consults its fans about the relevant matters, and
(b)the club takes the views of its fans into account in making decisions about the relevant matters.
(2)The relevant matters are matters relating to—
(a)the club’s strategic direction and objectives;
(b)the club’s business priorities;
(c)operational and match-day issues, including ticket pricing;
(d)the club’s heritage;
(e)the club’s plans relating to additional fan engagement.
(3)Matters that relate to the club’s heritage include matters relating to—
(a)the club’s home ground (within the meaning of section 46);
(b)any emblem or crest of a relevant team operated by the club;
(c)the predominant home shirt colours of a relevant team operated by the club;
(d)the name of a relevant team operated by the club.
(4)If the club is in relevant insolvency proceedings (within the meaning given by paragraph 13(3) of Schedule 1) sub-paragraph (1)(b) applies to the extent that the power to make decisions about the relevant matters remains exercisable by the club.
5For the purposes of this Schedule—
(a)an undertaking (within the meaning of Part 1 of the Competition Act 1998) is part of a group if one or more bodies corporate which are comprised in the undertaking are members of the same group as one or more other bodies corporate;
(b)two or more bodies corporate are members of the same group if—
(i)one is the subsidiary of another, or
(ii)both are subsidiaries of the same body corporate;
(c)“subsidiary” has the meaning given by section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006.
Section 20
1The IFR must attach to each operating licence—
(a)a financial plans condition,
(b)a corporate governance statement condition,
(c)a fan consultation condition, and
(d)an annual declaration condition.
2A financial plans condition is a condition requiring a club to—
(a)submit a financial plan containing specified information to the IFR before a specified date,
(b)update the financial plan—
(i)annually or at such more frequent intervals as may be specified, and
(ii)as soon as reasonably practicable after there has been a material change in circumstances affecting the club, and
submit that updated plan to the IFR, and
(c)act in accordance with the latest financial plan submitted to the IFR.
3For the purposes of paragraph 2(a), the IFR—
(a)must specify—
(i)information about how the club is, or is to be, funded and the source of such funding,
(ii)information about expected revenues and expenses, and
(iii)financial risk assessments and plans for managing financial risks, and
(b)may specify such other information as the IFR considers necessary for the purpose of exercising its functions under this Act.
4A corporate governance statement condition is a condition requiring a club to—
(a)submit a corporate governance statement to the IFR before a specified date, and
(b)update the statement—
(i)at specified intervals, and
(ii)as soon as reasonably practicable after there has been a material change in the corporate governance arrangements at the club, and
submit that updated statement to the IFR.
5The condition must require—
(a)the corporate governance statement to explain—
(i)how the club is applying the code published under paragraph 7, and
(ii)what action the club is taking to improve equality, diversity and inclusion, and
(b)the club to publish its latest corporate governance statement online as soon as reasonably practicable after it has been submitted to the IFR.
6(1)The IFR must publish the latest corporate governance statement of each regulated club as soon as reasonably practicable after each statement is submitted to the IFR.
(2)The IFR must also publish a corporate governance report.
(3)The report must—
(a)summarise the extent to which regulated clubs are applying the code published under paragraph 7,
(b)set out the main issues that the IFR considers to arise from the corporate governance statements submitted to the IFR, and
(c)recommend ways in which regulated clubs may improve their corporate governance arrangements.
(4)The report must—
(a)be made at such time and in such form as is specified by the IFR in rules;
(b)include such other matters as may be specified by the IFR in rules.
7(1)The IFR must prepare and publish a code of practice about the corporate governance of regulated clubs.
(2)“Corporate governance”, in relation to a club, includes—
(a)the nature, constitution or functions of the organs of the club,
(b)the manner in which the organs of the club conduct themselves,
(c)the requirements imposed on organs of the club,
(d)how the club contributes to the economic and social well-being of the local community with which it is associated,
(e)the approach of the club to equality, diversity and inclusion, and
(f)the relationship between different organs of the club.
(3)The IFR—
(a)must keep the code of practice under review, and
(b)may from time to time prepare and publish alterations to the code or a replacement code.
(4)Before publishing a code of practice or any alterations to the code, except where the IFR considers that the alterations are minor, the IFR must consult—
(a)the Football Association, and
(b)such other persons as appear to the IFR to be representative of persons likely to be affected by the code.
(5)A code of practice published under this paragraph comes into force on the day specified in it.
(6)Alterations to the code of practice come into force on the day specified in the alterations for that purpose.
8(1)A fan consultation condition is a condition requiring a club to carry out regular consultation on relevant matters with—
(a)persons elected by the club’s fans to represent their views, or
(b)persons otherwise appearing to the IFR to represent the views of the club’s fans.
(2)So far as the condition requires consultation with persons within sub-paragraph (1)(a), the condition may require the club to constitute a group of such persons for that purpose.
(3)In considering whether the condition should require consultation with persons within sub-paragraph (1)(a), the IFR must have regard to—
(a)the club’s corporate governance arrangements,
(b)the size and composition of the club’s fanbase, and
(c)the club’s financial and non-financial resources.
(4)In sub-paragraph (1) “relevant matters” has the meaning given by paragraph 4(2) of Schedule 4.
(5)In sub-paragraph (3) “corporate governance” has the meaning given by paragraph 7(2).
9(1)The condition may require the consultation to take place by specified means or at specified intervals.
(2)In considering what to specify for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the IFR must have regard to—
(a)the size and composition of the club’s fanbase, and
(b)the club’s financial and non-financial resources.
10An annual declaration condition is a condition requiring a club to submit an annual declaration to the IFR on a specified date or at specified intervals.
11The condition must require the declaration to contain—
(a)either—
(i)a description of any matter notified, or that should have been notified, to the IFR in accordance with section 27, 33 or 50 during the previous 12 months, or
(ii)a statement that there were no such matters to notify, and
(b)such other specified information.
12In this Schedule, “specified” (unless stated otherwise) means specified from time to time by the IFR in the condition concerned.
Section 24
1This Schedule applies for the purposes of commitments mentioned in section 23(3)(c)(ii) in relation to—
(a)the IFR accepting a commitment from a specified competition organiser,
(b)the IFR accepting a variation of a commitment (a “requested variation”), or
(c)the IFR releasing a specified competition organiser from a commitment.
2(1)Before accepting a commitment or a requested variation from a specified competition organiser, the IFR must—
(a)give a notice to the club concerned, and
(b)have regard to any representations made in accordance with the notice.
(2)The notice must—
(a)include the commitment or requested variation that the IFR proposes to accept,
(b)give the IFR’s reasons for proposing to accept the commitment or variation, and
(c)specify the period within which representations may be made in relation to the proposed commitment or variation.
(3)The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
3The IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after deciding whether to accept a commitment or requested variation, give a notice of its decision to the club and the specified competition organiser concerned.
4Paragraph 2 does not apply in relation to a proposed variation which the IFR does not consider material.
5(1)Before releasing a specified competition organiser from a commitment, the IFR must—
(a)give a notice to the club concerned and the specified competition organiser, and
(b)have regard to any representations made in accordance with the notice.
(2)The notice must—
(a)include a statement that the IFR proposes to release the specified competition organiser from the commitment,
(b)give the reasons for the IFR’s proposal, and
(c)specify the period within which representations may be made in relation to the proposal.
(3)The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
6The IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after deciding whether to release a specified competition organiser from a commitment, give a notice of its decision to the club and the specified competition organiser concerned.
Section 67
1This Schedule sets out when a person commits a relevant infringement for the purposes of this Act.
2(1)A club commits a relevant infringement if it—
(a)operates a relevant team, and
(b)does not hold an operating licence.
(2)A club also commits a relevant infringement if the club fails to comply with—
(a)a condition attached to an operating licence held by it;
(b)a requirement imposed on it by section 27 or 33;
(c)a direction given to it under section 40, 41 or 42;
(d)a requirement imposed on it by or under an order under section 43;
(e)a duty or prohibition imposed on it by any of sections 45 to 53;
(f)a commitment accepted under section 70;
(g)an urgent direction under section 79;
(h)any rule made by the IFR.
(3)A club also commits a relevant infringement if the club fails to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
(a)an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order under section 42;
(b)a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43;
(c)an expert reporter appointed under section 66;
(d)a skilled person appointed by virtue of paragraph 5 of Schedule 9.
(4)A club is deemed to have committed a relevant infringement if—
(a)instead of granting the club a full operating licence in accordance with section 18(6)(a), the IFR—
(i)specifies a further period for which the club’s provisional operating licence is to have effect in accordance with section 18(6)(b), or
(ii)revokes the club’s provisional operating licence in accordance with section 19;
(b)an owner of the club fails to comply with—
(i)a direction given to the owner under section 39 or 41, or
(ii)a requirement imposed on the owner by or under an order under section 43;
(c)an officer of the club fails to comply with a direction given to the officer under section 40 or 41;
(d)an owner or officer of the club fails to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
(i)an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order under section 42;
(ii)a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43.
3An owner of a club commits a relevant infringement if the owner—
(a)fails to comply with a requirement imposed on the owner by section 27 or 33;
(b)fails to comply with—
(i)a direction given to the owner under section 39 or 41, or
(ii)a requirement imposed on the owner by or under an order under section 43;
(c)fails to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
(i)an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order under section 42;
(ii)a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43;
(d)fails to comply with a commitment accepted under section 70;
(e)fails to comply with an urgent direction under section 79;
(f)fails to comply with any rule made by the IFR.
4An officer of a club commits a relevant infringement if the officer—
(a)fails to comply with a requirement imposed on the officer by section 27 or 33;
(b)fails to comply with a direction given to the officer under section 40 or 41;
(c)fails to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
(i)an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order under section 42;
(ii)a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43;
(d)fails to comply with a commitment accepted under section 70;
(e)fails to comply with an urgent direction under section 79;
(f)fails to comply with any rule made by the IFR.
5(1)A senior manager of a club commits a relevant infringement if—
(a)the club, without reasonable excuse, commits a relevant infringement, and
(b)the relevant infringement is connected to a senior management function carried out by the senior manager.
(2)A senior manager also commits a relevant infringement if the senior manager fails to comply with a commitment accepted under section 70.
6A specified competition organiser commits a relevant infringement if the organiser fails to comply with—
(a)a commitment accepted by the IFR under section 24;
(b)a requirement imposed by section 55 (duties to notify and consult with the IFR);
(c)a distribution order made under section 62;
(d)a commitment accepted under section 70;
(e)an urgent direction under section 79;
(f)any rule made by the IFR.
7A person who is not a club, an owner or officer of a club or a specified competition organiser commits a relevant infringement if the person fails to comply with a requirement imposed on the person by—
(a)section 27 (duty to notify where prospect of becoming a new owner or officer);
(b)section 46 (duty not to dispose of etc home ground without approval);
(c)section 47 (duty not to appoint administrator without approval);
(d)an urgent direction under section 79;
(e)any rule made by the IFR.
Section 68
1This Schedule applies where the IFR decides to conduct an investigation under section 68 into whether a person has committed a relevant infringement.
2(1)The IFR may give any person (whether or not the person mentioned in paragraph 1) a notice (“an interview notice”) requiring the person to answer questions that relate to any matter relevant to the investigation.
(2)An interview notice must—
(a)include details of the investigation;
(b)state the place at which, or the manner in which (which may be remote), the person is to answer the questions;
(c)state the time at which the person is to answer the questions;
(d)include information about the possible consequences under Part 8 of not complying with the notice.
3(1)On an application made to it by the IFR, the court or Tribunal may issue a warrant if it is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that there is on, or accessible from, any business premises information that relates to any matter relevant to the investigation (“relevant information”).
(2)A warrant under this paragraph authorises an officer of the IFR named in the warrant (“the authorised officer”), and any other of the IFR’s officers whom the IFR’s Board has authorised in writing to accompany the authorised officer, to—
(a)enter the premises specified in the warrant, using such force as is reasonably necessary;
(b)take onto the premises such equipment as appears to the authorised officer to be necessary;
(c)search the premises for information appearing to be relevant information;
(d)operate any equipment found on the premises for the purpose of producing information;
(e)require any person on the premises to provide such assistance as the authorised officer may reasonably require (including providing passwords or encryption keys and operating equipment on the premises);
(f)require any person on the premises to give information to the authorised officer;
(g)require any person on the premises to state, to the best of their knowledge and belief, where relevant information may be found;
(h)take copies of, or extracts from, any information appearing to be relevant information;
(i)take possession of any information appearing to be relevant information that is produced under paragraph (d) or given to the authorised officer under paragraph (f);
(j)take possession of any other information appearing to be relevant information if—
(i)such action appears to be necessary for preserving the information or preventing interference with it, or
(ii)it is not reasonably practicable to take copies of the information on the premises;
(k)take any other steps which appear to be necessary for the purpose of preserving any information appearing to be relevant information or preventing interference with it.
(3)Any information which is given to an officer under sub-paragraph (2) must be in a form—
(a)in which it can be taken away, and
(b)which is visible and legible or from which it can be readily be generated in a visible and legible form.
(4)A warrant under this paragraph may authorise persons specified in the warrant to accompany the authorised officer who is executing it.
(5)A warrant under this paragraph continues in force until the end of the period of one month beginning with the day on which it is issued.
(6)Any information which the IFR obtains under sub-paragraph (2) may be retained by the IFR for so long as is necessary in all the circumstances.
(7)An application for a warrant under this paragraph must—
(a)in the case of an application to the court, be made in accordance with rules of court;
(b)in the case of an application to the Tribunal, be made in accordance with Tribunal Procedure Rules.
(8)The IFR may not make an application under this paragraph to the court or the Tribunal unless the IFR’s Board has approved the making of the application.
(9)In this paragraph, “court” means the High Court.
4(1)A warrant under paragraph 3 must describe—
(a)the subject-matter and purpose of the investigation;
(b)the offence created by section 78(5).
(2)The powers conferred by paragraph 3 are exercisable only on production of the warrant issued under that paragraph.
(3)Before executing a warrant under paragraph 3, the authorised officer must—
(a)take reasonable steps to inform the occupier of the premises of the intended entry, and
(b)afford the occupier or their legal or other representative a reasonable opportunity to be present when the warrant is executed.
(4)But sub-paragraph (3) does not apply if the authorised officer considers that so informing the occupier would prejudice the execution of the warrant.
(5)If the authorised officer is unable to, or under sub-paragraph (4) does not, inform the occupier of the intended entry they must, when executing the warrant, leave a copy of it in a prominent place on the premises.
(6)On leaving any premises which they have entered by virtue of a warrant under paragraph 3, the authorised officer must, if the premises are unoccupied or the occupier is temporarily absent, leave them as effectively secured as they found them.
Section 75
1Paragraphs 2 and 3 apply where—
(a)the IFR determines that a person (“P”) has, without reasonable excuse, failed to comply with an information requirement (see section 75(2)), or
(b)the IFR is satisfied beyond reasonable doubt that P has committed an offence under section 78.
2(1)The IFR may prepare and publish a censure statement.
(2)A censure statement is a statement that—
(a)states the identity of P,
(b)states the information requirement that the IFR has determined that P has failed to comply with or the offence that the IFR is satisfied P has committed,
(c)explains why the IFR determined that P failed to comply with that requirement or is satisfied that P committed the offence (as the case may be), and
(d)explains why the IFR considers it appropriate to publish a statement under this paragraph in respect of P.
3(1)The IFR may impose a financial penalty on P.
(2)The amount of a penalty imposed under this paragraph may be such amount as the IFR considers appropriate, provided it does not exceed the amount set out in whichever of sub-paragraphs (5) to (9) applies.
(3)Where the IFR imposes a penalty under this paragraph it may provide that the amount of the penalty is reduced to, or by, a specified amount if the penalty is paid before a day specified in a decision notice under section 77.
(4)The amount of a penalty imposed under this paragraph must be—
(a)a fixed amount,
(b)an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or
(c)a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(5)Where P is a club or a competition organiser, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the club or organiser (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club or organiser (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(6)Where P is a body that is not a regulated club but has been a regulated club, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the body’s (both within and outside the United Kingdom), and
(ii)£75,000;
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the body (both inside and outside the United Kingdom), and
(ii)£25,000;
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(7)Where P is an owner of a club (including where P is also a senior manager or other officer of the club), the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the club (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(8)Where P is an officer of a club (including where P is a senior manager of the club, but not where P is also an owner of the club), the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s remuneration, and
(ii)£75,000;
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s daily remuneration, and
(ii)£25,000;
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(9)In any other case, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, £75,000;
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, £25,000 per day;
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(10)Where a club or body is an undertaking that is part of a group, references in sub-paragraphs (5), (6) and (7) to the revenue of the club or body are to the revenue of that group.
4(1)This paragraph applies where the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or otherwise) that a person (“P”) has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement.
(2)The IFR may prepare and publish a censure statement.
(3)A censure statement is a statement that—
(a)states the identity of P,
(b)states the relevant infringement that the IFR has determined that P has committed,
(c)explains why the IFR determined that P has committed the relevant infringement, and
(d)explains why the IFR considers it appropriate to publish a statement under this paragraph in respect of P.
5(1)This paragraph applies where—
(a)the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or otherwise) that a club has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement, and
(b)the infringement is continuing.
(2)The IFR may require the club to appoint a person nominated by the IFR (“a skilled person”) to assist the club in bringing the relevant infringement to an end.
(3)The IFR may only nominate a person if the IFR is satisfied that the person—
(a)has the skills necessary to assist the club in bringing the relevant infringement to an end, and
(b)does not have a conflict of interest.
(4)Where a skilled person is appointed by virtue of this paragraph, the club must—
(a)co-operate with the skilled person, and
(b)give the skilled person such reasonable assistance as the skilled person requests (including access to business premises, equipment, services, information and individuals),
in connection with bringing the relevant infringement to an end.
6(1)This paragraph applies where the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or otherwise) that a person (“P”) has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement.
(2)The IFR may impose a financial penalty on P.
(3)The amount of a penalty imposed under this paragraph may be such amount as the IFR considers appropriate, provided it does not exceed the amount set out in whichever of sub-paragraphs (6) to (10) applies.
(4)Where the IFR imposes a penalty under this paragraph it may provide that the amount of the penalty is reduced to, or by, a specified amount if the penalty is paid before a day specified in a decision notice under section 77.
(5)The amount of a penalty imposed under this paragraph must be—
(a)a fixed amount,
(b)an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or
(c)a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(6)Where P is a club or a competition organiser, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the club or organiser (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club or organiser (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(7)Where P is a body that is not a regulated club but has been a regulated club, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the body’s (both within and outside the United Kingdom), and
(ii)£75,000;
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the body (both inside and outside the United Kingdom), and
(ii)£25,000;
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(8)Where P is an owner of a club (including where P is also a senior manager or other officer of the club), the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the club (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(9)Where P is an officer of a club (including where P is a senior manager of the club but not where P is also an owner of the club), the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s remuneration, and
(ii)£75,000;
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for each day the higher of—
(i)an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s daily remuneration, and
(ii)£25,000;
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(10)In any other case, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
(a)in the case of a fixed amount, £75,000;
(b)in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, £25,000 per day;
(c)in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
(i)paragraph (a), in relation to the fixed amount, and
(ii)paragraph (b), in relation to the amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(11)Where a club or body is an undertaking that is part of a group, references in sub-paragraphs (6), (7) and (8) to the revenue of the club or body are to the revenue of that group.
7(1)This paragraph applies where—
(a)the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or otherwise) that a person has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement to which sub-paragraph (2) applies, and
(b)the relevant infringement is continuing.
(2)This sub-paragraph applies to relevant infringements that are relevant infringements by virtue of any of the following provisions of Schedule 7—
(a)paragraph 2(1);
(b)paragraph 2(2)(c), (d) or (g);
(c)paragraph 2(3)(a) or (b);
(d)paragraph 3(b), (c) or (e);
(e)paragraph 4(b), (c) or (e);
(f)paragraph 6(c) or (e);
(g)paragraph 7(d).
(3)The IFR may apply to the Tribunal for an injunction to bring the relevant infringement to an end.
(4)Tribunal Procedure Rules may make provision about the transfer from the Tribunal to the High Court of all or any part of an application under sub-paragraph (3).
8(1)Paragraph 9 applies where—
(a)the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or otherwise) that a club has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement, and
(b)one or more of the aggravating conditions are met in relation to the relevant infringement.
(2)The first aggravating condition is that—
(a)the relevant infringement is intentional and persistent, and
(b)the IFR has already taken action in accordance with this Part of this Schedule and considers that there is no further action it could take under this Part of this Schedule (other than action under paragraph 9) that would bring the relevant infringement to an end.
(3)The second aggravating condition is that—
(a)the club has intentionally and persistently failed to co-operate with the IFR in relation to any investigation into the relevant infringement, and
(b)the IFR has already taken action in accordance with this Part of this Schedule and considers that there is no further action it could take under this Part of this Schedule (other than action under paragraph 9) that would bring the relevant infringement to an end.
(4)The third aggravating condition is that the relevant infringement jeopardises the IFR’s ability to advance one or more of its objectives.
(5)For the purposes of this paragraph, behaviour is persistent if the behaviour has occurred on a sufficient number of occasions for it to be clear that it represents a pattern of behaviour or practice.
9(1)The IFR may—
(a)suspend the club’s operating licence, or
(b)revoke the club’s operating licence from a day specified by the IFR.
(2)Where the IFR suspends an operating licence—
(a)it must specify in a decision notice under section 77 the day on which the suspension takes effect, and
(b)it must specify in that notice either—
(i)the period for which the operating licence will be suspended, or
(ii)that the operating licence is to be suspended until some event specified in the notice occurs (which may be the giving of a further notice by the IFR).
(3)Where a decision notice under section 77 is given during a football season, the date specified in that notice for the purposes of sub-paragraph (2)(a) may not be a date before the end of that season.
(4)Nothing in this paragraph prevents the IFR from—
(a)re-exercising the power in this paragraph to suspend an operating licence after a previous suspension of the licence has come to an end, or
(b)revoking an operating licence after a suspension of the licence has come to an end.
10For the purposes of paragraphs 3 and 6—
(a)an undertaking (with the meaning of Part 1 of the Competition Act 1998) is part of a group if one or more bodies corporate which are comprised in the undertaking are members of the same group as one or more other bodies corporate;
(b)two or more bodies corporate are members of the same group if—
(i)one is the subsidiary of another, or
(ii)both are subsidiaries of the same body corporate;
(c)“subsidiary” has the meaning given by section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006.
11(1)In imposing a penalty under paragraph 3 or 6 by reference to a daily rate—
(a)no account is to be taken of any days before the IFR gives the person concerned a warning notice under section 76, and
(b)unless (whether before or after the penalty is imposed) the IFR determines an earlier day, the amount payable ceases to accumulate at the beginning of the day on which the conduct giving rise to the penalty ceases.
(2)Where the IFR imposes a penalty under paragraph 3 or 6 by reference to a daily rate, the decision notice under section 77 must state the day on which the amount first starts to accumulate and the day or days on which it might cease to accumulate.
12(1)For the purposes of paragraphs 3 and 6, the IFR may by rules (“revenue rules”) make provision for determining—
(a)a person’s total and daily revenue;
(b)an officer’s remuneration and daily remuneration.
(2)Revenue rules may, among other things, make provision about—
(a)amounts which are, or are not, to be included in a person’s revenue;
(b)amounts which are, or are not, to be included in an officer’s remuneration;
(c)the period or periods by reference to which a person’s revenue is to be determined;
(d)the period or periods by reference to which an officer’s remuneration is to be determined.
(3)Before making, amending or replacing revenue rules the IFR must consult the Secretary of State.
(4)Sub-paragraph (3) does not apply in relation to amendments to or replacements of revenue rules if the IFR considers the changes to be minor.
(5)The consultation must include a draft of the proposed revenue rules.
13(1)If the whole or part of a penalty imposed under paragraph 3 or 6 is not paid by the day by which it is required to be paid, the unpaid balance carries interest at an annual percentage rate of 5% plus the Bank of England base rate.
(2)But the IFR may, by notice to the person on whom the penalty is imposed, provide that this paragraph does not apply in relation to the penalty.
14(1)Where a penalty imposed under paragraph 3 or 6, or any part of such a penalty, has not been paid by the day by which it is required to be paid, the IFR may recover from the person on whom the penalty was imposed any amount of the penalty and interest that has not been paid.
(2)Such an amount may be recovered as a civil debt due to the IFR.
15The Secretary of State may by regulations amend the amounts for the time being specified in—
(a)paragraphs (a)(ii) and (b)(ii) of paragraph 3(6);
(b)paragraphs (a)(ii) and (b)(ii) of paragraph 3(8);
(c)paragraphs (a) and (b) of paragraph 3(9);
(d)paragraphs (a)(ii) and (b)(ii) of paragraph 6(7);
(e)paragraphs (a)(ii) and (b)(ii) of paragraph 6(9);
(f)paragraphs (a) and (b) of paragraph 6(10).
Section 81
| Decision of the IFR (“the reviewable decision”) | Who carries out the review (the “applicable reviewer”) |
|---|---|
| to refuse to grant a provisional operating licence under section 17 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to specify a further period for which a provisional operating licence is to have effect under section 18(6)(b) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to revoke a provisional operating licence under section 19 | the Board |
| to attach a discretionary licence condition, to vary or remove, or to not vary or remove, a discretionary licence condition attached, to an operating licence under section 21 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to accept, or not to accept, a commitment mentioned in section 23(3)(c)(ii) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to release, or not release, a specified competition organiser from a commitment mentioned in section 23(3)(c)(ii) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to make a determination in relation to a person under Part 4 | the Board |
| to make an order under section 38 (disqualification orders) | the Board |
| to give a direction under section 39 or 40 (removal directions) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to give a direction under section 41 (directions relating to unsuitable owners and officers) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to give a direction, or make an order, under section 42 (orders and directions effecting alternative officer arrangements) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to make an order under section 43 (ownership removal orders) | the Board |
| to specify, or not specify, a competition as a prohibited competition under section 45 | the Board |
| to approve, or not to approve, the taking of any step mentioned in section 46(1) (duty not to dispose etc of home ground without approval) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to approve, or not to approve, the appointment of an administrator under section 47 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to approve, or not to approve, the entering into of arrangements mentioned in section 48(1) (duty not to relocate without approval) | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| not to approve, or to approve with modifications, a personnel statement under section 52 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to trigger, or not to trigger, a resolution process under section 59 | the Board |
| to make a distribution order under section 62 | the Board |
| to revoke a distribution order under section 63 | the Board |
| to appoint an expert reporter under section 66 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| not to release a person from a commitment accepted under section 70 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to give an urgent direction for breaches of licence conditions under section 79 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to prepare and publish a censure statement under paragraph 2 or 4 of Schedule 9 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to require the appointment of a skilled person under paragraph 5 of Schedule 9 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to impose a financial penalty under paragraph 3 or 6 of Schedule 9 | a committee of the Expert Panel |
| to suspend or revoke an operating licence under paragraph 9 of Schedule 9 | the Board |
Section 93
| affirmative determination | section 28(1) |
| applicable reviewer | section 81(2) and Schedule 10 |
| Bank of England base rate | section 92(1) |
| the Board | paragraphs 1 and 2 of Schedule 2 |
| business premises | section 92(1) |
| chargeable period | section 53(11) |
| closure notice | section 69 |
| club | section 2(1) |
| the club financial soundness objective | section 6 |
| commitment | section 24 (in Part 3) and section 70 (in Part 7) |
| competition | section 2(1) |
| competition organiser | section 2(1) |
| concerned person | section 81(2) |
| conflict of interest | section 92(1) |
| decision notice | section 77 |
| discretionary licence condition | section 21 |
| distribution agreement | section 56(5) |
| distribution order | section 56(5) |
| English football | section 2(1) |
| English team | section 2(4) |
| Expert Panel | paragraphs 1 and 23 of Schedule 2 |
| expert reporter | section 66 |
| the fan engagement threshold requirement | paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 |
| the financial resources threshold requirement | paragraph 2 of Schedule 4 |
| the Football Association | section 92(1) |
| football | section 2(1) |
| football club | section 2(1) |
| football governance statement | section 11 |
| football season | section 92(1) |
| full operating licence | section 15(3) |
| HMRC | section 92(1) |
| the IFR | sections 1(2)(a) and 2(1) |
| the IFR’s objectives | section 6 |
| the IFR’s regulatory principles | section 8 |
| individual ownership fitness criteria | section 26(7) |
| information | section 92(1) |
| information requirement | section 75(2) |
| levy rules | section 53(2) |
| licensed club | section 2(1) |
| mandatory licence condition | section 20 and Schedule 5 |
| the non-financial resources threshold requirement | paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 |
| officer | section 4 |
| officer fitness criteria | section 26(8) |
| operates | section 2(2) |
| operating licence | section 2(1) |
| owner | section 3(1) and Schedule 1 |
| personnel statement | section 16(4) |
| provisional operating licence | section 15(2) |
| qualifying football season | section 56(5) |
| regulated club | section 2(1) |
| registered society | section 92(1) |
| relegation revenue | section 62(9) |
| relevant infringement | section 67 and Schedule 7 |
| relevant revenue | section 56(2) |
| relevant team | section 2(1) |
| resolution process | section 56(5) |
| revenue rules | paragraph 12(1) of Schedule 9 |
| reviewable decision | section 81(2) and Schedule 10 |
| senior manager | section 4(4) |
| senior management function | section 4(5) |
| serious criminal conduct | section 92(2) |
| skilled person | paragraph 5 of Schedule 9 |
| specified competition | section 2(1) |
| specified competition organiser | section 2(1) |
| state of the game report | section 10 |
| the systemic financial resilience objective | section 6 |
| team | section 2(1) |
| threshold requirements | paragraph 1 of Schedule 4 |
| the Tribunal | section 92(1) |
| Tribunal Procedure Rules | section 92(1) |
| ultimate owner | section 3(2) |
| urgent direction | section 79(2) |
| warning notice | section 76 |
Section 98
1In Schedule 1 to the Public Records Act 1958 (definition of public records), in paragraph 3, in Part 2 of the Table, at the appropriate place insert—
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
2In Schedule 2 to the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967 (departments etc subject to investigation), at the appropriate place insert—
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
3In Part 2 of Schedule 1 to the House of Commons Disqualification Act 1975 (bodies of which all members are disqualified), at the appropriate place insert—
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
4In Part 6 of Schedule 1 to the Freedom of Information Act 2000 (other public bodies and offices: general), at the appropriate place insert—
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
5(1)The Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 is amended as follows.
(2)In section 50 (additional powers of seizure from premises), in subsection (7), after “section 74(2)(h) of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024” insert “or paragraph 3(2)(h) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025”.
(3)In section 57 (retention of seized items), in subsection (1), at the end insert—
“(w)paragraph 3(6) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025.”
(4)In section 63(1) (powers of seizure: copies), in paragraph (d), after “section 74(2)(d) and (f) of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024” insert “, and in paragraph 3(2)(d) and (f) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025”.
(5)In section 64 (meaning of “appropriate judicial authority”)—
(a)in subsection (1), in the words before paragraph (a), for “subsection (2)” substitute “subsections (2) and (4)”;
(b)after subsection (3) insert—
“(4)In this Part “appropriate judicial authority”, in relation to the seizure of documents under paragraph 3(2) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025 and in relation to documents seized under that power, means the High Court.”
(6)In section 65 (meaning of “legal privilege”), after subsection (3B) insert—
“(3C)In relation to property which has been seized in exercise, or purported exercise, of—
(a)the power of seizure conferred by paragraph 3(2) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025, or
(b)so much of any power of seizure conferred by section 50 as is exercisable by reference to that power,
references in this Part to an item subject to legal privilege are to be read as references to a privileged communication within the meaning of section 73(3) of that Act.”
(7)In section 66(5) (general interpretation of Part 2), after paragraph (j) insert—
“(k)paragraph 3(2)(j) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025.”
(8)In Part 1 of Schedule 1 (powers of seizure to which section 50 applies), at the end insert—
73XEach of the powers of seizure conferred by paragraph 3(2)(i) and (j) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025 (seizure of information for the purposes of an investigation).”
6Schedule 4 to the Enterprise Act 2002 (the Competition Appeal Tribunal: procedure) is amended as follows.
7(1)Paragraph 1A (enforcement of injunctions in England and Wales and Northern Ireland) is amended as follows.
(2)In sub-paragraph (1), for “proceedings under” to “the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024” substitute “relevant proceedings”.
(3)After sub-paragraph (3) insert—
“(4)For the purposes of this paragraph, “relevant proceedings” means proceedings under—
(a)section 47A or 47B of the 1998 Act;
(b)section 101 of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024;
(c)paragraph 7 of Schedule 9 to the Football Governance Act 2025.”
8(1)Paragraph 10A (Tribunal rules: institution of proceedings) is amended as follows.
(2)In sub-paragraph (1), in the words before paragraph (a), for “warrant” to “the 1998 Act” substitute “relevant warrant”.
(3)In sub-paragraph (2), for “warrant mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)” substitute “relevant warrant”.
(4)After sub-paragraph (2) insert—
“(3)For the purposes of this paragraph, “relevant warrant” means a warrant under—
(a)section 194 of this Act;
(b)section 28, 28A, 62, 62A, 63, 65G or 65H of the 1998 Act;
(c)section 74 of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024;
(d)paragraph 3 of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act 2025.”
9In Part 1 of Schedule 19 to the Equality Act 2010 (authorities subject to the public sector equality duty), in the group of entries under the heading “Regulators”, at the appropriate place insert—
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
10(1)The Competition Appeal Tribunal Rules 2015 (S.I. 2015/1648) are amended as follows.
(2)In rules 3 (application of Rules)—
(a)in paragraph (b) after “5A” insert “, 5B”;
(b)after paragraph (b) insert—
“(ba)rules 67 to 70 of Part 2 also apply to appeals under section 84 of the Football Governance Act 2025;”;
(c)after paragraph (ea) insert—
“(eb)Part 5B applies to appeals under section 84 of the Football Governance Act 2025 ;”.
(3)After rule 98A insert—
(1)An appeal to the Tribunal under section 84 of the Football Governance Act 2025 (“the 2025 Act”) in respect of an appealable decision must be made by sending a notice of appeal within the period of 21 days beginning with the relevant day in relation to that decision.
(2)For the purposes of paragraph (1), “appealable decision” means—
(a)a reviewable decision specified in subsection (3) of section 84 of the 2025 Act, or
(b)a decision or deemed decision made by an applicable reviewer in respect of such a reviewable decision under section 83 of that Act.
(3)For the purposes of paragraph (1), the relevant day is—
(a)in relation to a decision that is an appealable decision by virtue of paragraph (2)(a), the day on which notice is given of the decision under the provision of the 2025 Act concerned;
(b)in relation to a decision that is an appealable decision by virtue of paragraph (2)(b), the day on which notice of the decision or deemed decision is given under section 82 or 83 (as the case may be) of the 2025 Act.
(4)For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(b) and (3)(b), a deemed decision is a decision that is treated as having been made under section 82(5)(b) or 83(6)(a) of the 2025 Act.
(5)The Tribunal may not extend the time limits provided for in this rule unless it is satisfied that the circumstances are exceptional.”
(4)Nothing in this paragraph affects the power in section 15 of the Enterprise Act 2002 to revoke or amend the Competition Appeal Tribunal Rules 2015, as those Rules are amended by this paragraph.
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