Statutory Instruments
2016 No. 765
Civil Aviation
The Air Navigation Order 2016
Made 13th July 2016
Laid before Parliament 20th July 2016
Coming into force 25th August 2016

At the Court at Buckingham Palace, the 13th day of July 2016
Present,
The Queen's Most Excellent Majesty in Council
This Order is made in exercise of the powers conferred by sections 60 (other than sub-section (3)(r)), 61, 77 and 101 of, and Schedule 13 to, the Civil Aviation Act 1982 , section 35 of the Airports Act 1986 and section 2(2) of, and paragraph 1A of Schedule 2 to, the European Communities Act 1972 .
1982 c.16; sections 60 and 61 were amended by the Airports Act 1986 (c.31), section 83(5) and Schedule 6 Part II. Section 60 was further amended by the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c.31), section 47 and Schedule 4, and by the Civil Aviation Act 2006 (c.34), section 8. Section 61 was further amended by the Aviation (Offences) Act 2003 (c.19), section 2 and Schedule 13 has been amended by the Energy Act 2004 (c.20), section 101.
1986 c.31.
1972 c. 68. Paragraph 1A of Schedule 2 was inserted by the Legislative and Regulatory Reform Act 2006 (c.51), section 28.
This Order makes provision for a purpose mentioned in section 2(2) of the European Communities Act 1972 and it appears to Her Majesty that it is expedient for certain references to provisions of EU instruments to be construed as references to those provisions as amended from time to time.
Her Majesty, by and with the advice of Her Privy Council, orders as follows:

Citation and commencement
1. This Order may be cited as the Air Navigation Order 2016 and comes into force on 25th August 2016.

PART 1 Interpretation and categorisation

CHAPTER 1 Interpretative matter

Interpretation
2. Schedule 1 (interpretation) has effect.

Meaning of “in flight”
3. An aircraft is deemed to be in flight—
(a) in the case of a piloted flying machine, from the moment when, after the embarkation of its crew for the purpose of taking off, it first moves under its own power, until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing;
(b) in the case of a pilotless flying machine, or a glider, from the moment when it first moves for the purpose of taking off, until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing;
(c) in the case of an airship, from the moment when it first becomes detached from the surface until the moment when it next becomes attached to the surface or comes to rest on the surface;
(d) in the case of a free balloon, from the moment when the balloon, including the canopy and basket, becomes separated from the surface until the moment it next comes to rest on the surface; and
(e) in the case of a captive balloon, from the moment when the balloon, including the canopy and basket, becomes separated from the surface, apart from a restraining device attaching it to the surface, until the moment when it next comes to rest on the surface,
and the expressions “a flight” and “to fly” are to be construed accordingly.

Meaning of “operator”
4. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), references in this Order to the operator of an aircraft are, for the purposes of the application of any provision of this Order in relation to any particular aircraft, references to the person who at the relevant time has the management of that aircraft.
(2) For the purposes of the application of any provision in Part 4 , Section 4 of Chapter 2 of Part 5 and article 119, when by virtue of any charter or other agreement for the hire or loan of an aircraft a person other than—
(a) the holder of a national air operator's certificate;
(b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 4(2)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 2 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) the holder of a Part-CAT air operator certificate; or
(d) a commercial operation undertaking,
has the management of that aircraft for a period of not more than 14 days, paragraph (1) has effect as if that charter or other agreement had not been entered into.

Meaning of “aerodrome traffic zone”
5. (1) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (8), the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome which is not on an offshore installation and at which the length of the longest runway is notified as 1,850 metres or less is that specified in paragraph (2).
(2) The aerodrome traffic zone at an aerodrome referred to in paragraph (1) is the airspace extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the level of the aerodrome within the area bounded by a circle centred on the notified mid-point of the longest runway and having a radius of two nautical miles.
(3) Paragraph (4) applies if—
(a) the aerodrome traffic zone specified in paragraph (2) would extend less than 1½ nautical miles beyond the end of any runway at the aerodrome; and
(b) this paragraph is notified as being applicable.
(4) The aerodrome traffic zone is that specified in paragraph (5) as though the length of the longest runway at the aerodrome were notified as greater than 1,850 metres.
(5) Subject to paragraph (8), the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome which is not on an offshore installation and at which the length of the longest runway is notified as greater than 1,850 metres is that specified in paragraph (6).
(6) The aerodrome traffic zone is the airspace extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the level of the aerodrome within the area bounded by a circle centred on the notified midpoint of the longest runway and having a radius of 2½ nautical miles.
(7) Subject to paragraph (8), the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome which is on an off-shore installation is the airspace extending from mean sea level to 2,000 feet above mean sea level and within 1½ nautical miles of the offshore installation.
(8) The aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome excludes any airspace which is within the aerodrome traffic zone of another aerodrome which is notified for the purposes of this article as being the controlling aerodrome.

Meaning of “public transport”
6. (1) For the purposes of this Order and subject to Chapter 2 of this Part, an aircraft in flight is flying on a public transport flight if—
(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 6(1)(a) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 3(b)
(b) the conditions specified in paragraph (2) are satisfied.
Words in art. 6(1) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 3(a)
(2) The conditions referred to in paragraph (1) are—
(a) the flight is not a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport; and
(b) the flight is—
(i) for the carriage of passengers or cargo and valuable consideration is given or promised for that flight in the aircraft; or
(ii) operated by the holder of a national air operator's certificate ... or a Part-CAT air operator certificate and any passengers or cargo are carried gratuitously in the aircraft except for persons specified in paragraph (3) or cargo specified in paragraph (4).
Words in art. 6(2)(b)(ii) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 3(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) The persons referred to in paragraph (2)(b)(ii) are persons in the employment of the operator (including, in the case of a body corporate, its directors), or persons authorised by the CAA either making any inspection or witnessing any training, practice or test for the purposes of this Order ... or the ... Air Operations Regulation.
Word in art. 6(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 3(b)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 6(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 3(b)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) The cargo referred to in paragraph (2)(b)(ii) is cargo intended to be used by any persons specified in paragraph (3) or by the operator.

Meaning of “commercial operation”
7. For the purposes of this Order, “commercial operation” means any operation of an aircraft other than for public transport—
(a) which is available to the public; or
(b) which, when not made available to the public, is performed under a contract between an operator and a customer, where the latter has no control over the operator,
Art. 7(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 3(1)(b) (with art. 13)
in return for remuneration or other valuable consideration.
Words in art. 7 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 3(1)(a) (with art. 13)

CHAPTER 2 Categorisation as public transport or commercial operation

Application of Chapter
8. Nothing in this Chapter applies to a flight subject to the ... Air Operations Regulation.
Word in art. 8 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 4 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Public transport – special rule for associations of persons
9. (1) A transaction is effected in accordance with this paragraph if, under a transaction effected by or on behalf of a member of an association of persons on the one hand and the association of persons or any member of the association on the other hand, a person is carried in, or is given the right to fly, an aircraft in such circumstances that valuable consideration would be given or promised if the transaction were effected in a different manner.
(2) If a transaction is effected in accordance with paragraph (1) valuable consideration is, for the purposes of this Order, deemed to have been given or promised, notwithstanding any rule of law as to such transactions.

Public transport – special rule for groups of companies
10. (1) For the purposes of article 6(2)(b)(i), there is to be disregarded any valuable consideration given or promised for a flight or the purpose of a flight by one company to another company which is—
(a) its holding company;
(b) its subsidiary; or
(c) another subsidiary of the same holding company.
(2) In this article, “holding company” and “subsidiary” have the meanings respectively specified in section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006 .
2006 c.46.

Public transport and commercial operations – exceptions – flying displays
11. (1) A flight is, for the purposes of Part 4, Part 5 and Part 6, a non-commercial flight if—
(a) the flight is of a sort described in paragraph (2); and
(b) there has been no valuable consideration or the only valuable consideration for the flight ... is of a sort described in paragraph (3).
Words in art. 11(1)(b) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 4(b)(i)
Words in art. 11(1)(b) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 4(b)(ii)
Words in art. 11(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 4(a)
(2) A flight is of a sort described in this paragraph if it is—
(a) wholly or principally for the purpose of taking part in an aircraft race, contest or flying display;
(b) for the purpose of positioning the aircraft for such a flight as is specified in sub-paragraph (a) and is made with the intention of carrying out such a flight; or
(c) for the purpose of returning after such a flight as is specified in sub-paragraph (a) to a place at which the aircraft is usually based.
(3) Valuable consideration is of a sort described in this paragraph if it is one or more of the following—
(a) valuable consideration given or promised to the owner or operator of an aircraft taking part in such a race, contest or flying display where such valuable consideration is not more than the direct costs of the flight and a contribution to the annual costs of the aircraft which contribution bears no greater proportion to the total annual costs of the aircraft than the duration of the flight bears to the annual flying hours of the aircraft; or
(b) one or more prizes awarded to the pilot in command of an aircraft taking part in an aircraft race or contest to a value which does not exceed £500 for any one race or contest except with the permission of the CAA granted to the organiser of the race or contest.
(4) Any prize falling within paragraph (3)(b) is deemed for the purposes of this Order not to constitute remuneration for services as a pilot.

Public transport and commercial operations – exceptions – charity flights
12. A flight is a non-commercial flight if there has been no valuable consideration or the only valuable consideration given or promised for the flight ... is one or more of the following—
(a) valuable consideration given or promised to a registered charity which is not the operator of the aircraft; or
(b) valuable consideration for which the CAA has otherwise given permission.
Words in art. 12 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 5(a)
Words in art. 12 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 5(b)

Public transport and commercial operations – exceptions – cost sharing
13. (1) A flight is a non-commercial flight if—
(a) there has been no valuable consideration or the only valuable consideration given or promised for the flight to the pilot by the passengers ... is a contribution to the direct costs of the flight otherwise payable by the pilot in command; and
Words in art. 13(1)(a) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 6(a)
Words in art. 13(1)(a) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 3(2)
Words in art. 13(1)(a) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 6(b)
(b) the criteria in paragraph (2) are satisfied.
(2) The criteria of this paragraph are satisfied if—
(a) no more than six persons (including the pilot) are carried on the flight;
(b) all costs other than direct costs are paid by the pilot with no contribution from the passengers;
(c) the contribution referred to in paragraph (1)(a) is an amount not more than the total direct costs divided equally by the number of persons carried (including the pilot);
(d) the flight is operated by a private individual;
(e) no person acting as a pilot is employed as a pilot or acting under a contract for the provision of services as a pilot for the flight;
(f) passengers undertaking the flight are clearly advised that the flight does not meet the same safety standards as a Commercial Air Transport (CAT) or Public Transport (PT) flight;
(g) for each passenger, a record is made attesting to—
(i) their having been clearly advised that the flight does not meet the same safety standards as a CAT or PT flight; and
(ii) their acceptance of this fact as indicated by their signed declaration to this effect;
(h) the records referred to in paragraph (g) are—
(i) completed prior to the flight;
(ii) retained by the operator of the flight for a period of 6 months from the date of the flight; and
(iii) produced by the operator of the flight when requested by an Authorised Person; and
(i) where advertisement or promotion of the flight occurs, the advertisement or promotion satisfies the criteria in paragraph (3).
Art. 13(2) substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 3(3)
(3) The criteria of this paragraph are satisfied if an advertisement or promotion of a flight—
(a) is placed by the pilot or operator of the flight;
(b) makes it clear that the flight is a private arrangement not conducted in accordance with CAT or PT safety standards; and
(c) includes—
(i) the start and end locations of the flight;
(ii) the date when the pilot is available to conduct the flight;
(iii) the licence type held by the pilot;
(iv) the class of medical certificate or medical declaration held by the pilot;
(v) the total number of hours flown by the pilot; and
(vi) the total number of hours flown by the pilot in the advertised aircraft type in the three months prior to the advertisement being placed.
Art. 13(3) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 3(4)

Public transport and commercial operations – exceptions – parachuting
14. A flight is a commercial operation flight if it is a flight in respect of which valuable consideration has been given or promised for the carriage of passengers and which is for the purpose of—
(a) the dropping of persons by parachute ... in accordance with the terms of a parachuting permission granted by the CAA under article 90;
Words in art. 14(a) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 7(b)
(b) positioning the aircraft for such a flight as is specified in paragraph (a) and which—
(i) is made with the intention of carrying out such a flight; and
(ii) on which no person is carried other than a person permitted to be carried on the flight in accordance with the terms of a parachuting permission granted under article 90; or
Art. 14(b)(ii) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 7(c)
(c) returning after such a flight as is specified in paragraph (a) to the place at which the persons carried on such a flight are usually based and on which flight no persons are carried other than persons carried on the flight specified in paragraph (a).
Words in art. 14 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 7(a)

Public transport – exceptions – introductory flights
15. (1) This article applies to an introductory flight (as defined in article 2 of the ... Air Operations Regulation) which meets the criteria and conditions described in article 6(4a)(c) of that Regulation.
Word in art. 15 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 5 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) A flight to which this article applies—
(a) is—
(i) a commercial flight for the purposes of Part 4; and
(ii) a non-commercial flight for all other purposes; and
(b) must—
(i) except when conducted by gliders or balloons, start and end at the same site;
(ii) be operated by day and in compliance with the Visual Flight Rules;
(iii) be overseen by a person nominated by the relevant organisation mentioned in article 6(4a)(c) of the ... Air Operations Regulation to be responsible for the safety of those involved; and
(iv) comply with any other conditions which may be specified by the CAA.

Public transport and commercial operations – exceptions – glider towing
16. A flight for the purpose of glider towing is a non-commercial flight if it meets the criteria and conditions relating to sailplane towing described in article 6(4a)(c) of the ... Air Operations Regulation.
Word in art. 16 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 6 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

PART 2 Application of the Order

Extra-territorial effect of the Order
17. (1) Except where the context otherwise requires, the provisions of this Order, in so far as they apply (whether by express reference or otherwise)—
(a) to aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, apply to such aircraft wherever they may be; and
(b) to other aircraft, apply to such aircraft when they are within the United Kingdom or on or in the neighbourhood of an offshore installation.
(2) Except where the context otherwise requires, the provisions of this Order in so far as they prohibit, require or regulate (whether by express reference or otherwise) the doing of anything—
(a) by persons in, or by any of the crew of, any aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, apply to such persons and crew, wherever they may be;
(b) in relation to any aircraft registered in the United Kingdom by other persons, where such persons are Commonwealth citizens, British protected persons or citizens of the Republic of Ireland, apply to them wherever they may be; and
(c) in relation to any aircraft on or in the neighbourhood of an offshore installation, apply to every person irrespective of their nationality or, in the case of a body corporate, of the law under which it was incorporated and wherever that person or body may be.
(3) Nothing in this article is to be construed as extending to make any person guilty of an offence in any case in which it is provided by section 3(1) of the British Nationality Act 1948 that that person will not be guilty of an offence.
1948 c.56. Section 3(1) was amended by paragraph 22 of Schedule 13 to the Merchant Shipping Act 1995 (c.21).

Aircraft in transit over certain United Kingdom territorial waters
18. (1) This article applies to any aircraft which is registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom when flying over the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom within any part of a strait specified in Schedule 2.
(2) If an aircraft is flying solely for the purpose of continuous and expeditious transit of the strait, only the articles and Schedules specified in paragraph (3) apply to that aircraft.
(3) These articles and Schedules are—
(a) article 77 and Schedule 5 to the extent necessary for the monitoring of the appropriate distress radio frequency;
(b) article 249(2), (3), and (4) and the regulations made under that article;
(c) article 265 and Part 2 of Schedule 13; and
(d) article 266.
(4) The powers conferred by the provisions referred to in paragraph (3) may not be exercised in a way which would hamper the transit of the strait by an aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom, but without prejudice to action needed to secure the safety of aircraft.
(5) In this article—
“transit of the strait” means overflight of the strait from an area of high seas at one end of the strait to an area of high seas at the other end, or flight to or from an area of high seas over some part of the strait for the purpose of entering, leaving or returning from a State bordering the strait; and
“an area of high seas” means any area outside the territorial waters of any State.

Application of the Order to British-controlled aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
19. (1) The CAA may direct that such of the provisions of this Order and of any regulations made or having effect under this Order as may be specified in the direction have effect as if reference in those provisions to aircraft registered in the United Kingdom included references to the aircraft specified in the direction.
(2) A direction under paragraph (1) may only specify an aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom but for the time being under the management of a person who, or of persons each of whom, is qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.

Application of the Order to the Crown
20. (1) Subject to the provisions of this article and article 22, the provisions of this Order apply to or in relation to aircraft belonging to or exclusively employed in the service of Her Majesty as they apply to or in relation to other aircraft.
(2) For the purposes of such application, the Department or other authority for the time being responsible on behalf of Her Majesty for the management of the aircraft is deemed to be the operator of the aircraft or, in the case of an unmanned aircraft, to be the UAS operator and, in the case of an aircraft belonging to Her Majesty, to be the owner of the interest of Her Majesty in the aircraft.
Words in art. 20(2) inserted (30.7.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/623), arts. 1(2), 4
Words in art. 20(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 4(a) (with art. 13)
Words in art. 20(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 4(b) (with art. 13)
(3) Nothing in this article renders liable to any penalty any Department or other authority responsible on behalf of Her Majesty for the management of any aircraft.

Application of the Order to visiting forces
21. (1) This article applies to the naval, military and air force authorities and members of any visiting force and any international headquarters and the members and property held or used for the purpose of such a force or headquarters.
(2) Except as otherwise expressly provided in this Order, every body and person and any property to which this article applies is exempt from the provisions of this Order and of any regulations made under this Order to the same extent as if it formed part of the forces of Her Majesty raised in the United Kingdom and for the time being serving there.

Application of the Order to military aircraft
22. (1) Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (2), and articles 174(3), 249(1)(a), 86(7) and (17) and 218, nothing in this Order applies to or in relation to any military aircraft.
(2) If a military aircraft is flown by a civilian pilot and is not commanded by a person who is acting in the course of that person's duty as a member of any of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces or as a member of a visiting force or international headquarters, the provisions specified in paragraph (3) apply to that flight.
(3) The provisions referred to in paragraph (2) are articles 239, 240, 241 and 242 and in addition article 249 (so far as applicable) applies unless the aircraft is flown in compliance with MAA01: Military Aviation Authority Regulatory Policy (Issue 4, published on 17th December 2014 and updated on 1st April 2015) and Regulatory Articles 2000 Series Flying Regulations (published on 11th November 2014 and updated on 21st April 2015) issued by the Secretary of State .
MAA01: Military Aviation Authority Regulatory Policy (Issue 4) and Regulatory Articles 2000 Series Flying Regulations are published by the Military Aviation Authority on behalf of the Secretary of State and are available at https://www.gov.uk/government/collections/maa-regulatory-publications or by writing to MAA regulation enquiries, Juniper 1, Abbey Wood North, Bristol, BS34 8QW.

Exceptions from application of provisions of the Order for certain classes of aircraft
23. (1) This article applies to—
(a) any small balloon;
(b) any kite weighing not more than 2kg;
(c) any unmanned aircraft other than an unmanned aircraft subject to certification;
Art. 23(1)(c) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 5(2) (with art. 13)
(d) any parachute including a parascending parachute.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (4), nothing in this Order applies to or in relation to an aircraft to which this article applies.
Words in art. 23(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 5(3) (with art. 13)
(3) Articles 2, 91, 92, 93, ...94A, 94B, 94BA, ... 239, 241 and 257 (except 257(2)(a)) apply to or in relation to an aircraft to which this article applies, and articles 253, 265, 266 and 269 apply in relation to those articles.
Word in art. 23(3) inserted (30.7.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/623), arts. 1(2), 5(a)
Word in art. 23(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 5(4)(a) (with art. 13)
Words in art. 23(3) inserted (30.7.2018 for specified purposes, 30.11.2019 in so far as not already in force) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/623), arts. 1(2)(3), 5(b)
Word in art. 23(3) inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 3
Words in art. 23(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 5(4)(b) (with art. 13)
Words in art. 23(3) substituted (30.7.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/623), arts. 1(2), 5(c)
(4) Articles 265A, 265B, 265C, 265D, 265E and 265F apply to or in relation to unmanned aircraft to which this article applies, and article 265(3) applies in relation to those articles.
Art. 23(4) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 5(5) (with art. 13)

PART 3 Registration and marking

Aircraft to be registered
24. (1) Subject to paragraphs (2), (3) and (4), an aircraft must not fly in or over the United Kingdom unless it is registered in—
(a) some part of the Commonwealth;
(b) a Contracting State; or
(c) some other country in relation to which there is in force an agreement between Her Majesty's Government in the United Kingdom and the Government of that country which makes provision for the flight over the United Kingdom of aircraft registered in that country.
(2) A non-Part-21 glider may fly unregistered, and will be deemed to be registered in the United Kingdom for the purposes of articles 77 and 137, on any flight which—
(a) begins and ends in the United Kingdom without passing over any other country; and
(b) is not for the purpose of public transport or commercial air transport.
Words in art. 24(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 7 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) A non-Part-21 aircraft may fly unregistered on any flight which—
(a) begins and ends in the United Kingdom without passing over any other country; and
(b) is in accordance with the B Conditions.
Words in art. 24(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 7 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) Paragraph (1) does not apply to any non-Part-21 kite, non-Part-21 captive balloon or any aircraft flying in accordance with the terms of any permission given by the CAA.
Art. 24(4) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 8
Words in art. 24(4) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 7 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) If an aircraft flies in or over the United Kingdom in contravention of paragraph (1) in such manner or circumstances that if the aircraft had been registered in the United Kingdom an offence in respect of a contravention of a provision specified in Schedule 13 would have been committed, that same offence will be deemed to have been committed in respect of that aircraft.

CAA to register aircraft in the United Kingdom
25. (1) The CAA is the authority for the registration of aircraft in the United Kingdom.
(2) The CAA is responsible for maintaining the register and may record in the register the information specified in article 27(2) in a legible or a non-legible form so long as the recording is capable of being reproduced in a legible form.
(3) Subject to the provisions of this Chapter, an aircraft must not be registered or continue to be registered in the United Kingdom if it appears to the CAA that—
(a) the aircraft is registered outside the United Kingdom and that such registration does not cease by operation of law when the aircraft is registered in the United Kingdom;
(b) the aircraft could more suitably be registered in some other part of the Commonwealth or, in the case of an aircraft registered to an unqualified person, another Contracting State; or
(c) it would not be in the public interest for the aircraft to be or to continue to be registered in the United Kingdom.
Word in art. 25(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 9

Who may register aircraft in the United Kingdom
26. (1) Only the following persons are qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom or a share in such an aircraft—
(a) the Crown in right of Her Majesty's Government in the United Kingdom and the Crown in right of the Scottish Administration;
(b) Commonwealth citizens;
(c) nationals of any EEA State;
(d) British protected persons;
(e) bodies incorporated in some part of the Commonwealth and having their principal place of business in any part of the Commonwealth;
(f) undertakings formed in accordance with the law of an EEA State which have their registered office, central administration or principal place of business within the European Economic Area; or
(g) firms carrying on business in Scotland (and in this sub-paragraph, “firm” has the same meaning as in the Partnership Act 1890 ).
1890 c.39.
(2) If a person other than a person qualified under paragraph (1) holds a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft, or a share in an aircraft, the CAA may register the aircraft in the United Kingdom if it is satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be properly registered.
(3) If an unqualified person has had an aircraft registered under paragraph (2) that person must not cause or permit the aircraft to be used for the purpose of commercial air transport while it is so registered.
(4) If an aircraft is chartered by demise to a person qualified under paragraph (1) the CAA may, whether or not an unqualified person is entitled as owner to a legal or beneficial interest in the aircraft, register the aircraft in the United Kingdom in the name of the charterer by demise if it is satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be properly registered.
(5) Subject to the provisions of this Part, an aircraft registered under paragraph (4) may remain registered during the continuation of the charter.

Application for registration
27. (1) An application for the registration of an aircraft in the United Kingdom must be made in writing to the CAA and must—
(a) include or be accompanied by such information and evidence relating to the aircraft and the ownership and chartering of the aircraft as the CAA may require to enable it to determine whether the aircraft may properly be registered in the United Kingdom and whether to issue the certificate of registration; and
(b) include the proper description of the aircraft according to column 3 of the “Classification of aircraft” in Part 1 of Schedule 4.
(2) If the CAA receives an application for the registration of an aircraft in the United Kingdom and is satisfied that the aircraft may properly be so registered, the CAA must register the aircraft, wherever it may be, and include in the register the following information—
(a) the number of the certificate;
(b) the nationality mark of the aircraft and the registration mark assigned to it by the CAA;
(c) the manufacturer and the manufacturer's designation of the aircraft;
(d) the serial number of the aircraft;
(e) the name and address of every person who is entitled as owner to a legal interest in the aircraft or a share of the aircraft or, in the case of an aircraft which is the subject of a charter by demise, the name and address of the charterer by demise; and
(f) in the case of an aircraft registered under article 26(2) or 26(4), an indication that it is so registered.
(3) The CAA must supply to the registered owner a certificate of registration.
(4) A certificate of registration must include the information specified in paragraph (2) and the date on which the certificate was issued.

Changes to the register
28. (1) Any person who is the registered owner of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must immediately inform the CAA in writing of—
(a) any change in the information supplied to the CAA when applying for the registration of the aircraft;
(b) the destruction of the aircraft, or its permanent withdrawal from use; or
(c) in the case of an aircraft registered under article 26(4), the termination of the charter by demise.
(2) Any person who becomes the owner of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must within 28 days of becoming the owner inform the CAA in writing to that effect.
(3) Subject to article 29 the CAA may, whenever it appears necessary or appropriate in order to give effect to this Part or to bring up to date or otherwise correct the register, amend the register or cancel the registration of an aircraft.
(4) The CAA must cancel the registration of an aircraft—
(a) within two months of being satisfied that there has been a change in the ownership of the aircraft; and
(b) subject to regulation 51 of the 2015 Regulations (disapplication in respect of pre-existing rights and interests), as soon as reasonably practicable if satisfied that a person wishes and is entitled to procure the de-registration of the aircraft in accordance with Article IX (modification of default remedies provisions) of the Aircraft Protocol (within the meaning of the 2015 Regulations).

Aircraft which are entered in the Register of Aircraft Mortgages
29. (1) The CAA must not, under article 28(3), cancel the registration of an aircraft which is the subject of an undischarged mortgage entered in the Register of Aircraft Mortgages kept by the CAA under an Order in Council made under section 86 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 unless all persons shown in the Register of Aircraft Mortgages as mortgagees of that aircraft have consented to the cancellation.
(2) Subject to regulation 51 of the 2015 Regulations (transitional provision), this article does not apply to an aircraft to which article 30 applies.

Aircraft subject to an international interest
30. (1) This article applies to an aircraft—
(a) which is the subject of a registered international interest within the meaning of the 2015 Regulations, and
(b) in respect of which an irrevocable de-registration and export request authorisation is in force.
(2) The CAA may cancel the registration of an aircraft to which this article applies under article 28(3) only in pursuance of an application made by a person who is recorded, in accordance with regulation 22 of the 2015 Regulations, as the authorised party under an irrevocable de-registration and export request authorisation in respect of the aircraft.
(3) Expressions used in this article have the same meaning as in the 2015 Regulations.

General provisions concerning registration
31. (1) The Secretary of State may, by regulations, adapt or modify the foregoing provisions of this Part as the Secretary of State deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of providing for the temporary transfer of aircraft to or from the United Kingdom register, either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases.
(2) In this Part and in Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3 “the registered owner” means the person in whose name the aircraft is registered in accordance with article 27(2).
(3) The reference in article 28(1) to the registered owner of an aircraft includes, in the case of a deceased person, their legal personal representative, and in the case of a body corporate which has been dissolved, its successor.
(4) In this Part references to an interest in an aircraft do not include references to an interest in an aircraft to which a person is entitled only by virtue of the person's membership of a flying club.
(5) Nothing in this Part requires the CAA to cancel the registration of an aircraft if in its opinion it would not be in the public interest to do so.
(6) Any provision in this Part which requires the giving of information to the CAA in writing may be met by means of an electronic communication if the use of such a communication results in the information contained in that communication being available to the CAA in all material respects as it would appear if given or sent in printed form.

Nationality and registration marks
32. (1) An aircraft (other than an aircraft permitted by or under this Order to fly without being registered) must not fly unless it has painted or fixed on it, in the manner required by the law of the country in which it is registered, the nationality and registration marks required by that law.
(2) The marks to be borne by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must—
(a) comply with Part 2 of Schedule 4; or
(b) be borne with the permission of the CAA.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), an aircraft must not bear any marks which would indicate—
(a) that the aircraft is registered in a country in which it is not in fact registered; or
(b) that the aircraft is a State aircraft of a particular country if it is not in fact such an aircraft, unless the appropriate authority of that country has sanctioned the bearing of such marks.
(4) Marks approved by the CAA for the purposes of flight in accordance with the B Conditions do not mean that the aircraft is registered in a country in which it is not in fact registered.

PART 4 Airworthiness of Aircraft

CHAPTER 1 Airworthiness – general

Certificate of airworthiness to be in force
33. (1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), an aircraft must not fly unless there is in force for the aircraft a certificate of airworthiness—
(a) issued in accordance with the relevant minimum standards established under the Chicago Convention;
(b) issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the State of the operator; and
(c) in respect of which any conditions subject to which the certificate was issued or rendered valid are complied with.
(2) The prohibition in paragraph (1) does not apply to flights, beginning and ending in the United Kingdom without passing over any other country, of—
(a) a non-Part-21 glider unless flying on a public transport or commercial air transport flight;
Word in art. 33(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 8(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) a non-Part-21 balloon flying on a non-commercial flight;
(c) a non-Part-21 kite;
(d) a non-Part-21 aircraft flying in accordance with the A Conditions, the B Conditions, the E Conditions or under a special category national certificate of airworthiness;
(e) an aircraft flying in accordance with a national permit to fly;
(f) a single-seat deregulated aeroplane which is flying on a non-commercial flight;
Art. 33(2)(f) substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 4
(g) an aircraft flying in accordance with the terms of any permission given by the CAA ... .
Words in art. 33(2)(g) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 10
(3) The prohibition in paragraph (1) does not apply to flights by an aircraft flying in accordance with a Part-21 permit to fly.
Words in art. 33(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 8(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) In the case of a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, the certificate of airworthiness referred to in paragraph (1) is, subject to article 37, a national certificate of airworthiness.
Word in art. 33(4) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 8(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) In the case of a Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, the certificate of airworthiness referred to in paragraph (1) is a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness issued by the CAA.
Words in art. 33(5) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 8(d) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(6) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a certificate of airworthiness includes a Part-21 restricted certificate of airworthiness.
Words in art. 33(6) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 8(d) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(7) An aircraft registered in the United Kingdom with a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness must not fly otherwise than in accordance with any conditions or limitations contained in its flight manual.
Words in art. 33(7) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 8(d) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Issue of airworthiness directives for Part-21 aircraft
34. (1) Subject to and in accordance with article 70(1) of the Basic ... Regulation, the CAA may direct that a Part-21 aircraft must not fly until one of the following has been completed to the satisfaction of the CAA—
(a) maintenance of the aircraft or of any equipment necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft which has been made mandatory by a directive issued by the CAA;
(b) an inspection for the purpose of ascertaining whether the aircraft remains airworthy which has been made mandatory by a directive issued by the CAA; or
(c) any modification of the aircraft or of any equipment which is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft and has been made mandatory by a directive issued by the CAA for the purpose of ensuring that the aircraft remains airworthy.
Words in art. 34(1) substituted (13.4.2022) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2022 (S.I. 2022/321), arts. 1(1), 3
Word in art. 34(1) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 9(b)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 34(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 9(b)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) A directive under paragraph (1) ceases to have effect if—
(a) it is withdrawn by the CAA; ...
Word in art. 34(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 9(c)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 34(2)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 9(c)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 34(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 9(d) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 34 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 9(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Requirement for a certificate of release to service for Part-21 aircraft
35. A Part-21 aircraft must not fly when a certificate of release to service is required by or under Part M or Part 145 unless such a certificate has been issued in accordance with Part M or Part 145 and is in force.
Word in art. 35 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 10(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 35 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 10(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Licensing of maintenance engineers
36. (1) The CAA must grant an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence, subject to such conditions it deems appropriate, if it is satisfied that the applicant is—
(a) a fit person to hold the licence; and
(b) qualified by having the knowledge, experience, competence and skill in aeronautical engineering to act in the capacity to which the licence relates.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1) the applicant must supply such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests as the CAA may require.
(3) An aircraft maintenance engineer's licence authorises the holder—
(a) to issue certificates of release to service under this Order for such overhauls, repairs, replacements, modifications, maintenance and inspections of such aircraft and such equipment as may be specified;
(b) to issue certificates of fitness for flight issued under paragraph 5 of the A Conditions for such aircraft as may be specified; or
(c) to extend the validity period of the national airworthiness review certificate.
(4) Subject to article 253, an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence remains in force for the period specified in the licence, which must not exceed five years.
(5) An aircraft maintenance engineer's licence may be renewed by the CAA if it is satisfied that the applicant is a fit person and is qualified in accordance with paragraph (1).
(6) The CAA may issue a certificate rendering valid for the purposes of this Order any aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted under the law of any country other than the United Kingdom.
(7) An aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted under this article is not valid unless it has been signed by the holder in ink or indelible pencil but if the licence is annexed to an aircraft maintenance licence issued under Part 66 it is sufficient if that Part 66 licence has such a signature.
(8) The holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted under paragraph (1) or of an aircraft maintenance licence granted under Part 66 must not exercise the privileges of such a licence if the holder knows or suspects that their physical or mental condition renders them unfit to exercise such privileges.

CHAPTER 2 Initial airworthiness – Non-Part-21 aircraft

Certificate of airworthiness for State aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
37. (1) This article applies to a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom which is a State aircraft but which is not a military aircraft.
Word in art. 37(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) There must be in force for the aircraft either a national certificate of airworthiness or a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness issued by the CAA.
Words in art. 37(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) If there is in force a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness issued by the CAA the aircraft must—
(a) comply with the Basic ... Regulation and any implementing rules made under that Regulation which would apply if it were a Part-21 aircraft;
Word in art. 37(3)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(c)(ii)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 37(3)(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(c)(ii)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) comply with any United Kingdom national requirements made in accordance with article 70(1) of the Basic ... Regulation and in CAP 747 which would apply if it were a Part-21 aircraft;
Words in art. 37(3)(b) substituted (13.4.2022) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2022 (S.I. 2022/321), arts. 1(1), 4
Word in art. 37(3)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(c)(iii)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 37(3)(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(c)(iii)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) comply with any United Kingdom national requirements for State aircraft in CAP 747; and
(d) not fly within the airspace of another State without the permission of the competent authority of that State.
Words in art. 37(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 12(c)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) In this article, “CAP 747” means CAA publication CAP 747 entitled “Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness , Issue 4, incorporating amendments to 2021/01, dated 1 January 2021” ....
Words in art. 37(4) inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 3
Words in art. 37(4) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 11

Issue and renewal of national certificates of airworthiness
38. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), the CAA must issue for any non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom a national certificate of airworthiness if it is satisfied that the aircraft is fit to fly having regard to—
(a) the design, construction, workmanship and materials of the aircraft (including in particular any engines fitted in the aircraft), and of any equipment carried in the aircraft which it considers necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft; and
(b) the results of flying trials, and such other tests of the aircraft as it may require.
Words in art. 38(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 12
Word in art. 38(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 13 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) A national certificate of airworthiness issued by the CAA must be a non-expiring national certificate of airworthiness.
(3) If the CAA has issued a national certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft which, in its opinion, is a prototype aircraft or a modification of a prototype aircraft, it may dispense with flying trials in the case of any other aircraft if it is satisfied that the other aircraft conforms to such prototype or modification.
(4) Every national certificate of airworthiness must specify whether it is a Standard or Special Category certificate according to which is, in the opinion of the CAA, appropriate to the aircraft.
(5) A Special Category certificate must be issued subject to the condition that the aircraft may be flown only for the purposes indicated in Part 2 of Schedule 3 in relation to that category.
(6) The CAA may issue a national certificate of airworthiness subject to such other conditions it deems appropriate relating to the airworthiness of the aircraft.
(7) Nothing in this Order obliges the CAA to accept an application for the issue of a national certificate of airworthiness or for the variation or renewal of any such certificate if the application is not supported by such reports from such persons approved under article 268 as the CAA may specify, either generally or in a particular case or class of cases.

National certificate of airworthiness ceasing to be in force and issue of airworthiness directives for non-Part-21 aircraft
39. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), a national certificate of airworthiness issued for a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom ceases to be in force if—
(a) the aircraft or any part of the aircraft or such of its equipment as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft has been overhauled, repaired, replaced, modified or maintained;
(b) maintenance or an inspection of the aircraft or of any equipment necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft is required by a maintenance programme established under article 54;
(c) maintenance of the aircraft or of any equipment necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft has been made mandatory by a directive issued by the CAA;
(d) an inspection for the purpose of ascertaining whether the aircraft remains airworthy has been made mandatory by a directive issued by the CAA; or
(e) any modification of the aircraft or of any equipment which is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft, has been made mandatory by a directive issued by the CAA for the purpose of ensuring that the aircraft remains airworthy.
Word in art. 39 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 14 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) A certificate of airworthiness which has ceased to be in force under paragraph (1) becomes valid again on the issue of a certificate of release to service under this Order or in accordance with paragraph 21A.163(d) of Part 21 relating to the overhaul, repair, replacement, modification, maintenance or inspection.
(3) A certificate of airworthiness which would not be in force by reason of paragraph (1) remains in force if the aircraft is flying in the circumstances specified in article 44(3).
Word in art. 39 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 14 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Issue of national permits to fly
40. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose must issue for any non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom a national permit to fly if it is satisfied that the aircraft is fit to fly having regard to the airworthiness of the aircraft and the conditions to be attached to the permit.
Word in art. 40(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 15 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose must refuse to issue a national permit to fly for a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom if it appears to the CAA that the aircraft is eligible for, and ought to fly under and in accordance with, a national certificate of airworthiness.
Word in art. 40(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 15 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) The CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose may issue a national permit to fly subject to such conditions it deems appropriate relating to the airworthiness, operation or maintenance of the aircraft.
(4) Nothing in this Order obliges the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose to accept an application for the issue, variation or renewal of a national permit to fly if the application is not supported by such reports from such persons approved under article 268 as the CAA may specify, either generally or in a particular case or class of cases.

National permits to fly ceasing to be in force and issue of airworthiness directives for permit aircraft
41. (1) A national permit to fly ceases to be in force if—
(a) the CAA has issued a directive that requires—
(i) an inspection to be carried out for the purpose of ascertaining whether the aircraft remains airworthy; or
(ii) modification or maintenance of the aircraft or any of its equipment necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft for the purpose of ensuring that the aircraft remains airworthy; or
(b) completion of an inspection, modification or maintenance of the aircraft is required as a condition of the permit to fly.
(2) A national permit to fly which has ceased to be in force under paragraph (1) comes into force again as soon as—
(a) any such inspection, modification or maintenance has been satisfactorily completed; and
(b) in the case of an inspection, any consequential repair, replacement or modification has been satisfactorily carried out.
(3) A national permit to fly ceases to be in force—
(a) if any condition (other than a condition of the permit requiring an inspection, modification or maintenance) is not complied with;
(b) if the aircraft, engines or propellers, or such of its equipment as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft, are modified or repaired, unless the repair or modification has been approved by the CAA or by a person approved by the CAA for that purpose.
(4) A national permit to fly is not in force unless the permit includes a current certificate of validity issued by the CAA or by a person approved by the CAA for that purpose.
(5) In this article “certificate of validity” means a certificate which certifies that a national permit to fly remains valid for the period specified in the certificate and a certificate of validity is current during that period.

Limitations of national permits to fly
42. (1) An aircraft flying in accordance with a national permit to fly—
(a) must not fly for the purpose of public transport or commercial air transport; and
(b) must not fly without the permission of the CAA—
(i) for commercial operation other than commercial operation which consists of an aircraft flying for the purpose of a flying display, associated practice for a flying display, test and positioning flights or the exhibition or demonstration of the aircraft;
Art. 42(1)(b)(i) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 13
(ii) at night or in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules; or
(iii) for hire.
(2) A placard must be affixed to any aircraft flying in accordance with a permit to fly in full view of the occupants which must be worded as follows—
Occupant Warning
This aircraft has not been certificated to an International Requirement

Aircraft weight schedule
43. (1) This article applies to any flying machine or glider which—
(a) is not subject to Annexes III to VIII of the ... Air Operations Regulations; and
Word in art. 43(1)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 16(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) has a certificate of airworthiness issued by the CAA or a national permit to fly.
(2) Every aircraft to which this article applies must be weighed, and the position of its centre of gravity determined, at such times and in such a manner as the CAA may require.
(3) The operator of an aircraft must—
(a) when the aircraft is weighed, prepare a weight schedule showing—
(i) the mass, or such other weight as may be approved by the CAA ... for that aircraft; and
Words in art. 43(3)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 16(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(ii) the position of the centre of gravity at its mass or such other position of the centre of gravity as may be approved by the CAA ... for that aircraft.
(b) account for and properly document the accumulated effects of modifications and repairs on the mass and balance of the aircraft;
(c) make available such information to the pilot in command; and
(d) reweigh the aircraft if the effect of modifications on the mass and balance is not accurately known.
(4) Subject to article 238, the weight schedule must be preserved by the operator of the aircraft for at least six months after the next occasion on which the aircraft is weighed for the purposes of this article.
(5) In this article, “mass” means the empty mass of the aircraft established in accordance with the certification basis of the aircraft.
Word in Pt. 4 Ch. 2 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 11 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 3 Continuing airworthiness for Non-Part-21 aircraft

Requirement for a certificate of release to service for non-Part-21 aircraft
44. (1) This article applies to each non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom which has a certificate of airworthiness, except any such aircraft which is required to be maintained in accordance with Part 145.
Word in art. 44 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 18 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) Subject to paragraph (3) and article 45, if an aircraft or any part of the aircraft or such of its equipment as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft has been overhauled, repaired, replaced, modified, maintained, or has been inspected as provided in article 39(1)(b) or (d), that aircraft must not fly unless there is in force for the aircraft a certificate of release to service issued under and in accordance with this Order.
(3) If a repair or replacement of a part of an aircraft or its equipment is carried out when the aircraft is at a place where it is not reasonably practicable—
(a) for the repair or replacement to be carried out in such a manner that a certificate of release to service under this Order can be issued; or
(b) for such a certificate to be issued while the aircraft is at that place,
it may fly to a place which satisfies each of the criteria in paragraph (4).
(4) A place satisfies the criteria in this paragraph if it is—
(a) the nearest place at which a certificate of release to service under this Order can be issued;
(b) a place to which the aircraft can, in the reasonable opinion of the pilot in command, safely fly by a route for which it is properly equipped; and
(c) a place to which it is reasonable to fly having regard to any hazards to the liberty or health of any person on board.
(5) Equipment provided in compliance with Schedule 5 or Schedule 6 must not be installed or placed on board for use in an aircraft after being overhauled, repaired, modified or inspected unless there is in force for the equipment, at the time when it is installed or placed on board, a certificate of release to service issued under this Order.
(6) In this article, in relation to a compass, the expression “repair” includes its adjustment and compensation and the expression “repaired” is to be construed accordingly.
Word in art. 44 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 18 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Circumstances where a certificate of release to service is not required
45. An aircraft to which article 44 applies does not require to have in force a certificate of release to service issued under this Order if it has in force a certificate of release to service issued in accordance with paragraph 21A.163(d) of Part 21.

Certificate of release to service issued by pilot owner
46. In accordance with any guidance issued by the CAA a pilot owner of a private aircraft which has a maximum total mass authorised of not more than 2,730kg to which article 44 applies—
(a) may carry out simple visual inspections or operations to check for general condition and obvious damage and normal operation of the airframe, engines, systems and components of the aircraft;
(b) rectify any defects identified under paragraph (a); and
(c) issue a certificate of release to service at the completion of any maintenance when satisfied that all maintenance required has been properly carried out.

Contents of a certificate of release to service
47. (1) A certificate of release to service must contain as a minimum—
(a) details of the maintenance carried out;
(b) the date such maintenance was completed;
(c) the identity of the organisation and person issuing the release to service, including—
(i) the approval reference of the maintenance organisation approved in accordance with article 48 and the certifying staff issuing such a certificate;
(ii) the identity and, if applicable, licence number of the certifying staff issuing such a certificate; or
(iii) in the case of a certificate issued under article 46, the identity, signature and pilot licence number of the pilot owner issuing the certificate;
(d) the limitations to airworthiness or operations, if any.
(2) When any maintenance prescribed for the aircraft cannot be completed, a certificate of release to service may be issued within the approved aircraft limitations provided that—
(a) the inability to complete the maintenance; and
(b) any resulting limitations to airworthiness or operations,
are noted in the certificate.
(3) A certificate of release to service must not be issued in the case of any known non-compliance which endangers flight safety.

Who may issue a certificate of release to service
48. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a certificate of release to service issued under this Order may be issued only by—
(a) the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence—
(i) granted under this Order, being a licence which entitles the holder to issue that certificate; or
(ii) granted under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom and rendered valid under this Order, in accordance with the privileges endorsed on the licence;
(b) a person approved by the CAA as being competent to issue such certification, and in accordance with that approval;
(c) a person authorised by the CAA to issue the certificate in a particular case, and in accordance with that authorisation;
(d) a person approved in accordance with Part 145, and in accordance with that approval;
(e) the holder of an aircraft maintenance licence granted by the CAA under Part 66, in accordance with the privileges endorsed on the licence; or
(f) a pilot owner in accordance with article 46.
(2) The holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence or authorisation as an aircraft maintenance engineer granted or issued by or under the law of any Contracting State other than the United Kingdom may issue a certificate of release to service for an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom if—
(a) it is issued in accordance with the privileges endorsed on the licence or authorisation;
(b) the overhaul, repair, replacement, modification, maintenance or inspection has been carried out in the Contracting State under the law of which the licence or authorisation has been granted or issued;
(c) there is a certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft; and
(d) the aircraft has a maximum take-off mass of not more than 2,730kg.
(3) In this article, in relation to a compass, the expression “repair” includes its adjustment and compensation.

Requirement for and validity of a national airworthiness review certificate
49. (1) An aircraft with a national certificate of airworthiness must not fly unless it has a valid national airworthiness review certificate.
(2) Subject to articles ... 50, 56, 57, 58 and 253, a national airworthiness review certificate is valid for one year.
Word in art. 49(2) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 14

Validity of the national airworthiness review certificate
50. A national airworthiness review certificate becomes invalid if—
(a) suspended or revoked;
(b) the certificate of airworthiness is suspended or revoked; or
(c) the aircraft ceases to be registered in the United Kingdom.

Other circumstances in which an aircraft must not fly
51. An aircraft with a national certificate of airworthiness must not fly if—
(a) the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft or any component fitted to the aircraft does not meet the requirements of this Part;
(b) the aircraft does not remain in conformity with the type design approved by the CAA;
(c) the aircraft has been operated beyond the limitations of the approved flight manual or the airworthiness certificate, without subsequent appropriate action to restore airworthiness being taken;
(d) the aircraft has been involved in an accident or incident that affects the airworthiness of the aircraft, without subsequent appropriate action to restore airworthiness being taken; or
(e) the aircraft has a modification or repair for which a certificate or release to service has not been issued in accordance with this Order.

Initial issue of national airworthiness review certificate
52. (1) This article applies to an aircraft with a national certificate of airworthiness which has not previously had a national airworthiness review certificate.
(2) A national airworthiness review certificate is issued for an aircraft to which this article applies in accordance with paragraph (3) or (4).
(3) A national airworthiness review certificate may be issued by the CAA following the satisfactory completion of an airworthiness review by the CAA.
(4) A national airworthiness review certificate may be issued by the CAA on receipt of a recommendation from—
(a) a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with article 61; or
(b) in the case of an aircraft with a maximum total weight authorised of 2,730kg or less, an aeroplane and rotorcraft maintenance organisation approved in accordance with article 62.
(5) A recommendation under paragraph (4) may only be made when the organisation is satisfied that it may properly do so after carrying out an airworthiness review.

Subsequent issue of national airworthiness review certificate
53. (1) This article applies to an aircraft with a national certificate of airworthiness which has previously had a national airworthiness review certificate.
(2) A national airworthiness review certificate may be issued for an aircraft to which this article applies in accordance with paragraph (3) or (4).
(3) A national airworthiness review certificate may be issued by the CAA—
(a) following the completion of an airworthiness review by the CAA; or
(b) in the case of an aircraft which has a maximum total weight authorised of 2,730kg or less and is not a commercial air transport aircraft, public transport aircraft or non-military State aircraft, on receipt of a recommendation for its issue from an aeroplane and rotorcraft maintenance organisation approved in accordance with article 62.
(4) A national airworthiness review certificate may be issued by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved under article 61.
(5) A national airworthiness review certificate may be issued under paragraph (3)(a) or paragraph (4) only when the CAA or the issuing organisation is satisfied that it may properly do so after carrying out an airworthiness review.
(6) A recommendation to issue a national airworthiness review certificate under paragraph (3)(b) may be made only when the organisation making the recommendation is satisfied that it may properly do so after carrying out an airworthiness review.

Aircraft maintenance programme
54. (1) An aircraft with a national certificate of airworthiness must be maintained in accordance with—
(a) in the case of an aircraft which has a maximum total weight authorised of 2,730kg or less and is not a commercial air transport aircraft, public transport aircraft or non-military State aircraft, a maintenance programme declared by the owner of the aircraft in accordance with guidance issued by the CAA; or
(b) an aircraft maintenance programme approved in accordance with this article.
(2) The aircraft maintenance programme in paragraph (1)(b), and any amendments, must be approved—
(a) by the CAA; or
(b) in accordance with paragraphs (3) and (4).
(3) When the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft is managed by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with article 61, the aircraft maintenance programme and its amendments may be approved by that organisation.
(4) In that case, the approval procedure must be included by the continuing airworthiness management organisation in its continuing airworthiness management exposition required by article 61(2)(b).

Commercial air transport aircraft, public transport aircraft and non-military State aircraft
55. Aircraft with a national certificate of airworthiness which are commercial air transport aircraft, public transport aircraft or non-military State aircraft must—
(a) be managed by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with article 61; and
(b) have any maintenance carried out by a maintenance organisation which is approved under article 48(1)(b).

Extension of a national airworthiness review certificate of an aircraft in a controlled environment
56. (1) The validity of a national airworthiness review certificate of an aircraft in a controlled environment may be extended by the continuing airworthiness management organisation which is managing the airworthiness of the aircraft.
(2) The continuing airworthiness management organisation may extend the validity of a national airworthiness review certificate on a maximum of two occasions, for a period of 12 months on each occasion.
(3) A national airworthiness review certificate may be extended only when the continuing airworthiness management organisation which is to extend it is satisfied that it is proper to do so.

Extension of a national airworthiness review certificate of certain aircraft which are not in a controlled environment
57. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to any aircraft which is not in a controlled environment and which has a maximum total weight authorised of 2,730kg or less.
(2) This article does not apply to any commercial air transport aircraft, public transport aircraft or non-military State aircraft.
(3) The validity period of a national airworthiness review certificate of an aircraft to which this article applies may be extended in accordance with paragraphs (4) and (5), on a maximum of two occasions, for a period of 12 months on each occasion.
(4) The validity period of a national airworthiness review certificate may be extended by—
(a) an appropriately licensed engineer;
(b) a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with article 61; or
(c) an aeroplane and rotorcraft maintenance organisation approved in accordance with article 62.
(5) The validity period of a national airworthiness review certificate may be extended only when the person who is to extend it is satisfied that it is proper to do so after carrying out an annual review.

Extension of a national airworthiness review certificate of other aircraft which are not in a controlled environment
58. (1) This article applies to any aircraft with a national airworthiness review certificate which is not in a controlled environment and—
(a) has a maximum total weight authorised of more than 2,730kg; or
(b) is a commercial air transport aircraft, a public transport aircraft or a non-military State aircraft.
(2) The validity period of a national airworthiness review certificate of an aircraft to which this article applies may be extended, in accordance with paragraphs (3) and (4), on a maximum of two occasions, for a period of 12 months on each occasion.
(3) The validity period of a national airworthiness review certificate may be extended by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with article 61.
(4) The validity period of a national airworthiness review certificate may be extended only when the organisation which is to extend it is satisfied that it is proper to do so after carrying out an annual review.

Conduct of an airworthiness review
59. (1) An airworthiness review referred to in articles 52 and 53 must be conducted in accordance with this article.
(2) A full documented review of the aircraft records must be carried out to confirm that all scheduled maintenance, overhaul, modification, repair, replacement, defect rectification and compliance with any airworthiness directive issued under article 38, has been completed so as to ensure the continued airworthiness of the aircraft.
(3) A physical survey of the aircraft must be carried out.
(4) For the physical survey, airworthiness review staff who do not hold an appropriate maintenance engineer licence under Part 66 or article 36 must be assisted by such qualified personnel.
(5) Through the physical survey of the aircraft, the staff carrying it out must determine whether—
(a) all required markings and placards are properly installed;
(b) the aircraft complies with its approved flight manual;
(c) the aircraft configuration complies with the approved documentation;
(d) any evident defect can be found that has not been addressed;
(e) when, in their reasonable opinion, a check flight is necessary, the aircraft has completed a satisfactory check flight; and
(f) any inconsistencies can be found between the aircraft and the documented review of records under paragraph (2).
(6) An airworthiness review may be anticipated by a maximum period of 90 days without loss of continuity of the airworthiness review pattern, to allow the physical review to take place during a maintenance check.
(7) Airworthiness review tasks must not be sub-contracted.

Conduct of an annual review
60. An annual review referred to in articles 57(5) and 58(4) means a check to establish that the following has been accomplished—
(a) all maintenance has been carried out in accordance with a programme mentioned in article 54(1);
(b) all modifications and inspections deemed mandatory by the CAA have been carried out as required by the CAA;
(c) all defects entered in the aircraft records have been rectified or deferred in accordance with CAA approved procedures; and
(d) all required certificates of release to service have been issued.

Approval of continuing airworthiness management organisation
61. (1) Any person may apply to the CAA for approval as a continuing airworthiness management organisation.
(2) The CAA must approve a person as a continuing airworthiness management organisation for the purposes of this Part if it is satisfied that—
(a) the applicant is competent to exercise the privileges of such an organisation in this Part; and
(b) the applicant has submitted a continuing airworthiness management exposition that satisfies the requirement specified in paragraph (3).
(3) The requirement referred to in paragraph (2)(b) is that the continuing airworthiness management exposition satisfies the requirements in CAA publication CAP 553 entitled “British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A - Airworthiness Procedures where the CAA has Primary Responsibility for Type Approval of the Product , Issue 8 Amendment 1, dated 15 December 2017” ....
Words in art. 61(3) inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 4
Words in art. 61(3) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 15
(4) The continuing airworthiness management exposition and any amendments to it must be approved by the CAA.

Approval of aeroplane and rotorcraft maintenance organisation
62. (1) Any person may apply to the CAA for approval as an aeroplane and rotorcraft maintenance organisation.
(2) The CAA must approve a person as an aeroplane and rotorcraft maintenance organisation for the purposes of this Part if it is satisfied that the applicant is competent to exercise the privileges of such an organisation in this Part.

General provisions concerning airworthiness reviews
63. (1) A copy of any national airworthiness review certificate issued or extended for an aircraft must be sent to the CAA within 10 days of the date of its issue or extension.
(2) Should the outcome of the airworthiness review be inconclusive, the person who has carried out the review must inform the CAA and must not issue or extend the certificate without the approval of the CAA.
(3) In this Part, “an aircraft in a controlled environment” is an aircraft—
(a) which, during the previous 12 months has been continuously managed by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with article 61; and
(b) in respect of which during the previous 12 months any maintenance has been carried out in accordance with paragraph (4).
(4) Maintenance is carried out in accordance with this paragraph if it is carried out by a maintenance organisation which is approved under article 48(1)(b).
(5) Whenever circumstances reveal the existence of a potential safety threat, the CAA may carry out the airworthiness review and issue the national airworthiness review certificate itself.
(6) When the CAA carries out the airworthiness review or issues the national airworthiness review certificate itself, the owner or operator must provide the CAA with—
(a) the documentation required by the CAA;
(b) suitable accommodation at the appropriate location for its personnel; and
(c) when necessary, the support of personnel appropriately qualified in accordance with Part 66 or article 36.
Word in Pt. 4 Ch. 3 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 17 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

PART 5 Operations

CHAPTER 1 Interpretation and application

Meaning of “non-Part-21 aircraft” in this Part
64. For the purposes of this Part, “non-Part-21 aircraft” means an aircraft which, when conducting the flight or operation, is not subject to any of Annexes III to VIII of the ... Air Operations Regulation.
Word in art. 64 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 19(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 64 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 19(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 64 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 19(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Application of Chapters 2 and 7
65. Chapters 2 (other than articles 77(1) and 79) and 7 apply only to non-Part-21 aircraft.
Words in art. 65 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 16
Word in art. 65 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 20 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 2 Operational rules for Non-Part-21 aircraft

SECTION 1 Crew required to be carried

Flight crew required by aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
66. (1) This article applies to an aircraft registered in a country other than the United Kingdom.
(2) An aircraft must not fly unless it carries a flight crew of the number and description required by the law of the country in which it is registered.

Flight crew required by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
67. (1) An aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must carry a flight crew adequate in number and description to ensure the safety of the aircraft.
(2) An aircraft—
(a) which has a flight manual, must carry a flight crew of at least the number and description specified in that flight manual;
(b) which does not currently have a flight manual but has done in the past, must carry a flight crew of at least the number and description specified in that flight manual.

SECTION 2 Duties of Pilot in Command

Responsibilities and authority of pilot in command
68. The pilot in command of an aircraft is responsible—
(a) before every flight, for defining the roles and duties of each crew member;
(b) for the operation and safety of the aircraft and for the initiation, continuation, termination or diversion of a flight in the interest of safety; and
(c) during aircraft operations, for ensuring the safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo on board.

Obligations of pilot in command
69. (1) The pilot in command must only use aerodromes and operating sites that are adequate for the type of aircraft and operation concerned.

Flight preparation
(2) Before commencing a flight the pilot in command must be satisfied that—
(a) the flight can be made safely, taking into account the latest information available as to the route and aerodrome to be used; and
(b) the ground and water facilities, including any required communication and navigation facilities, are adequate for the intended flight.
Art. 69(2) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 17(a)

Operating procedures
(3) The pilot in command must ensure that—
(a) the flight is performed in such a way that the operating procedures specified in the flight manual, or where required the operations manual, for the preparation and execution of the flight are followed; and
(b) procedures are established and followed for any reasonably foreseeable emergency situation.

Meteorological conditions
(4) The pilot in command must only commence or continue—
(a) a Visual Flight Rules flight if—
(i) the latest available meteorological information indicates that the weather conditions along the route and at the intended destination aerodrome at the estimated time of use will be at or above the applicable Visual Flight Rules operating minima; and
(ii) the pilot in command has planned an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that the flight cannot be completed as planned because of weather conditions;
(b) a flight under Instrument Flight Rules towards the planned destination aerodrome if the latest available meteorological information indicates that, at the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions at the destination or at least one destination alternate aerodrome are at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority.

Selection of destination alternate aerodrome
(5) If, according to the information available, an aircraft would be required to be flown in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules at the aerodrome of intended landing, the pilot in command of the aircraft must select before take-off a destination alternate aerodrome unless no aerodrome suitable for that purpose is available.
(6) A flight to be conducted in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules to an aerodrome when no suitable destination alternate aerodrome is available must not be commenced by the pilot in command unless—
(a) an instrument approach procedure notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority is available for the aerodrome of intended landing; and
(b) available current meteorological information indicates that visual meteorological conditions will exist at the aerodrome of intended landing from two hours before until two hours after the estimated time of arrival.

Navigation and landing during loss of navigational capability
(7) The pilot in command must ensure that sufficient means are available to navigate and land at the destination aerodrome or at any destination alternate aerodrome in the case of loss of navigational capability for the intended approach and landing operation.

Airworthiness, equipment, baggage and cargo
(8) The pilot in command must ensure that—
(a) the aircraft is airworthy;
(b) instruments and equipment required for the execution of the flight are installed in the aircraft and are operative, unless operation with inoperative or missing equipment is permitted by ... the CAA;
Words in art. 69(8)(b) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 17(b)
(c) all equipment, baggage and cargo are properly loaded and secured and that an emergency evacuation of the aircraft remains possible.

Mass and balance requirements
(9) The pilot in command must ensure that during any phase of operation, the loading, the mass and, except for balloons, the centre of gravity position of the aircraft comply with any limitation specified in the flight manual, the weight schedule required by article 43, or equivalent document.

Fuel, oil and ballast
(10) The pilot in command must ensure that—
(a) in the case of a flying machine or airship, sufficient fuel, oil and engine coolant (if required) are carried for the intended flight, and that a safe margin has been allowed for contingencies;
(b) in the case of a public transport flight, the instructions in the operations manual relating to fuel, oil and engine coolant have been complied with; and
(c) in the case of an airship or balloon, sufficient ballast is carried for the intended flight.

Performance based navigation
(11) The pilot in command must ensure that when performance based navigation is required for the route or procedure to be flown—
(a) the relevant performance based navigation specification is stated in the flight manual or other document that has been approved by the CAA or another competent authority;
(b) any navigational database required for performance based navigation is suitable and current; and
(c) the aircraft is operated in conformity with the relevant navigation specification and limitations in the flight manual or other document mentioned in sub-paragraph (a).

Pilot to remain at controls and be secured in seat
70. (1) During flight, the pilot in command must—
(a) keep any safety belt fastened while at the pilot's station; and
(b) remain at the controls of the aircraft at all times except if another pilot is taking the controls.
(2) If the aircraft is required by or under this Order to carry two pilots, the pilot in command must cause both pilots to remain at the controls during take-off and landing.
(3) If the aircraft carries two or more pilots (whether or not it is required to do so) and is flying on a flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers, the pilot in command must remain at the controls during take-off and landing.
(4) An operator must not permit a helicopter rotor to be turned under power for the purpose of making a flight unless there is a person at the controls entitled in accordance with article 137 to act as pilot in command of the helicopter.
Word in art. 70(4) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 18

Passengers to be seated and properly secured
71. The pilot in command of an aircraft other than a balloon must ensure that—
(a) prior to and during taxiing, take-off and landing; and
(b) whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety,
each passenger on board occupies a seat or berth and has their safety belt or restraint device properly secured.

Survival equipment
72. (1) This article applies to any aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) The pilot in command must be satisfied on reasonable grounds before take-off that the aircraft carries such additional equipment as the pilot in command reasonably considers necessary for the purposes of facilitating the survival of the persons carried in the aircraft.
(3) In complying with paragraph (2) the pilot in command must have regard to the circumstances of the intended flight, including in particular the likelihood of ditching and the availability of search and rescue facilities.
(4) The pilot in command must determine the risks to survival of the occupants of the aircraft in the event of a ditching when deciding if life-jackets must be worn by all occupants.

Passenger briefings
73. (1) The pilot in command must ensure that before or, where appropriate, during the flight, passengers are given a briefing on emergency equipment and procedures.
(2) This article does not apply to the pilot in command of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom in relation to a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.

Demonstration and use of oxygen
74. (1) The pilot in command must ensure that—
(a) before or, where appropriate, during the flight, passengers are given a briefing on use of supplemental oxygen where it is proposed that during the flight the cabin altitude will exceed 13,000 feet;
(b) the pilot and flight crew members engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight use supplemental oxygen continuously whenever the cabin altitude exceeds—
(i) 10,000 feet for a period of more than 30 minutes; or
(ii) 13,000 feet; and
(c) whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13,000 feet, all passengers are recommended to use supplemental oxygen.

SECTION 3 Take-off and landing conditions

Take-off and landing conditions
75. (1) Before commencing take-off, the pilot in command—
(a) of a balloon must be satisfied that, according to the information available, the weather at the operating site or aerodrome would not prevent a safe take-off and departure;
(b) of all other aircraft must be satisfied that—
(i) according to the information available, the weather at the aerodrome or operating site and the condition of the runway or final approach and take-off area intended to be used would not prevent a safe take-off and departure; and
(ii) aerodrome operating minima notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority will be complied with.
(2) Before commencing an approach to land, the pilot in command must be satisfied that, according to the information available, the weather at the aerodrome or the operating site and the condition of the runway or final approach and take-off area intended to be used would not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed approach.
(3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 75(3) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 19

Aerodrome operating minima
76. (1) The pilot in command must use the departure and approach procedures notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority for the runway or final approach and take-off area to be used.
(2) The pilot in command may deviate from a departure route, arrival route or approach procedure—
(a) provided obstacle clearance criteria can be observed, full account is taken of the operating conditions and any air traffic control clearance is adhered to; or
(b) when being radar-vectored by an air traffic control unit.

Operating minima
(3) For flights under Instrument Flight Rules, the pilot in command must select and use aerodrome operating minima for each departure, destination and destination alternate aerodrome which—
(a) must not be lower than those notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority;
(b) when undertaking low visibility operations, have been approved by the CAA or the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered.
(4) The pilot in command may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported runway visual range or visibility.
(5) If the reported runway visual range or visibility is less than the applicable minimum notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority, the pilot in command must not continue the approach—
(a) below 1,000 feet above the aerodrome; or
(b) into the final approach segment in the case where the decision height or the minimum descent height is more than 1,000 feet above the aerodrome.
(6) If, after passing 1,000 feet above the aerodrome, the reported runway visual range or visibility falls below the applicable minimum notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority, the pilot in command may continue the approach to the decision height or the minimum descent height.
(7) The pilot in command may continue the approach below the decision height or the minimum descent height and the landing may be completed provided that the visual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at the decision height or the minimum descent height and is maintained.
(8) Where the runway visual range is not available, the pilot in command may derive the runway visual range values by converting the reported visibility.

SECTION 4 Equipment of aircraft

Equipment of aircraft
77. (1) An aircraft must not fly unless it is equipped with equipment which—
(a) complies with the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the State of the operator; and
(b) enables communications to be made and the aircraft to be navigated, in accordance with—
(i) the provisions of this Order and any regulations made under this Order; or
(ii) any notified airspace requirements.
(2) Paragraphs (3) and (4) apply to any aircraft registered in the United Kingdom other than when flying for public transport.
Words in art. 77(2) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 20(a)
(3) An aircraft to which this paragraph applies must not fly unless it is so equipped and marked in accordance with Schedule 5 (aircraft equipment).
(4) The equipment in Schedule 5 must be—
(a) of a type approved by ... the CAA either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation to that aircraft, unless it is equipment listed in paragraph 1(2) of that Schedule; and
Words in art. 77(4) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 22 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) installed in a manner approved by ... the CAA.
(5) The equipment carried in compliance with this article must be installed or stowed and kept stowed, maintained and adjusted, so as to be readily accessible and capable of being used by the person for whose use it is intended.
(6) The position of equipment provided for emergency use must be indicated by clear markings in or on the aircraft.
(7) Any equipment installed or carried in an aircraft must be installed, carried, maintained and adjusted so that such equipment—
(a) does not impair the airworthiness of the aircraft or the proper functioning of any other instrument or equipment necessary for the safety of the aircraft; and
(b) is not a source of danger to the aircraft.
Art. 77(7) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 20(b)

Minimum equipment requirements
78. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 78 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 21(1)

SECTION 5 Operation of radio and navigation equipment

Carriage of equipment
78A. (1) This article applies to any aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) The CAA may permit an aircraft or class of aircraft to which this article applies to commence a flight in specified circumstances even though a specified item of equipment, which is required to be carried under articles 77 or 119 in the circumstances of the intended flight, is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use.
(3) An aircraft to which this article applies must not commence a flight if any of the equipment, which is required to be carried under articles 77 or 119 in the circumstances of the intended flight, is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use unless the aircraft does so in accordance with the terms of a permission granted to the operator under paragraph (2).
Art. 78A inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 21(2)

Operation of radio in aircraft
79. (1) A radio station in an aircraft must not be operated, whether or not the aircraft is in flight, except—
(a) in accordance with the conditions of the licence issued for that station under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the State of the operator; and
(b) by a person duly licensed or otherwise permitted to operate the radio station under that law.
(2) The radio station in an aircraft must not be operated so as to cause interference which impairs the efficiency of aeronautical telecommunications or navigational services.

Operation of, and training in operation of, airborne collision avoidance system
80. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), when ACAS II is used—
(a) operational procedures and training must be in accordance with the Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation;
(b) the pilot in command—
(i) must apply the appropriate operational procedures and be adequately trained;
(ii) must not commence a flight unless satisfied that every member of the flight crew has had the training specified in sub-paragraph (c)(i);
(c) every member of the flight crew—
(i) must apply the appropriate operational procedures and be adequately trained; and
(ii) must not act as a member of the flight crew on a flight unless that person has had that training.
(2) In the case of an aircraft which is registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom, the airborne collision avoidance system must be operated in accordance with any procedures with which it is required to comply under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered.

Minimum navigation performance
81. (1) An aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not fly in North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace unless it is equipped with navigation systems which enable the aircraft to maintain the prescribed navigation performance capability.
(2) The equipment required by paragraph (1) must—
(a) be approved by ... the CAA;
Words in art. 81(2)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 23 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) be installed in a manner approved by the CAA;
(c) be maintained in a manner approved by the CAA; and
(d) while the aircraft is flying in that airspace, be operated in accordance with procedures approved by the CAA.

Height keeping performance – aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
82. (1) An aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not fly in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace unless—
(a) it is equipped with height keeping systems which enable the aircraft to maintain the required height keeping performance capability; or
(b) it is otherwise authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
(2) The equipment required by paragraph (1) must—
(a) be approved by ... the CAA;
Words in art. 82(2)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 24 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) be installed in a manner approved by the CAA;
(c) be maintained in a manner approved by the CAA; and
(d) while the aircraft is flying in that airspace, be operated in accordance with procedures approved by the CAA.

Height keeping performance – aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
83. (1) An aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom must not fly in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace in the United Kingdom unless—
(a) it complies with paragraph (2); or
(b) it is otherwise authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
(2) An aircraft complies with this paragraph if it is registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom and—
(a) it is so equipped with height keeping systems as to comply with the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered in so far as that law requires it to be so equipped when flying in any designated airspace; and
(b) the equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the aircraft to maintain the height keeping performance notified for the airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and it is so operated.

Area navigation and required navigation performance capabilities – aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
84. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not fly in Required Navigation Performance airspace unless it is equipped with area navigation equipment which enables the aircraft to maintain the navigation performance capability notified, prescribed or otherwise designated for that airspace.
(2) The equipment required by paragraph (1) must—
(a) be approved by ... the CAA;
Words in art. 84(2)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 25 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) be installed in a manner approved by the CAA;
(c) be maintained in a manner approved by the CAA; and
(d) while the aircraft is flying in that airspace, be operated in accordance with procedures approved by the CAA.
(3) An aircraft need not comply with the requirements of this article if—
(a) the appropriate air traffic control unit, having been made aware of the lack of compliance, authorises the flight; and
(b) the aircraft complies with any instructions the air traffic control unit may give.

Area navigation and required navigation performance capabilities – aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
85. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), an aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom must not fly in Required Navigation Performance airspace in the United Kingdom unless it complies with paragraph (2).
(2) An aircraft complies with this paragraph if it is registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom and—
(a) it is equipped with area navigation equipment so as to comply with the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered in so far as that law requires it to be so equipped when flying within designated required navigation performance airspace; and
(b) the navigation equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the aircraft to maintain the navigation performance capability notified for the airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and is so operated.
(3) Paragraph (2) does not apply to an aircraft if—
(a) the appropriate United Kingdom air traffic control unit, having been made aware of the lack of compliance, authorises the flight; and
(b) the aircraft complies with any instructions the air traffic control unit may give.
Word in Pt. 5 Ch. 2 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 21 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 3 Specialised activities

Flying displays
86. (1) Subject to paragraphs (15), (16) and (18), no person may act as the organiser of a flying display (in this article referred to as “the flying display director”) without first applying for and obtaining the permission of the CAA for that flying display.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (16) and (18), the pilot in command of an aircraft who is intending to participate in a flying display must take all reasonable steps to be satisfied, before participating, that—
(a) the flying display director has been granted an appropriate permission under paragraph (6);
(b) the intended flight can comply with any relevant conditions subject to which that permission may have been granted; and
(c) the pilot has been granted an appropriate pilot display authorisation.
(3) Subject to paragraphs (16) and (18), the pilot in command of an aircraft who is participating in a flying display for which a permission has been granted must comply with any conditions subject to which that permission may have been granted.
(4) Subject to paragraphs (16) and (18), a person acting as pilot of an aircraft participating in a flying display must hold an appropriate pilot display authorisation and comply with any conditions subject to which the authorisation may have been given.
(5) Subject to paragraphs (16) and (18), the flying display director must not permit any person to act as pilot of an aircraft which participates in a flying display unless such person holds an appropriate pilot display authorisation.
(6) The CAA must grant a permission required by paragraph (1) if it is satisfied that the flying display director is fit and competent to safely organise the proposed flying display, having regard in particular to the flying display director's—
(a) previous conduct and experience; and
(b) organisation, staffing and other arrangements.
(7) The CAA may grant such a permission subject to such conditions, which may include conditions concerning military aircraft, as the CAA thinks fit.
(8) The CAA must, for the purposes of this article, grant a pilot display authorisation authorising the holder to act as pilot of an aircraft taking part in a flying display if it is satisfied that the applicant is—
(a) a fit person to hold the authorisation; and
(b) is qualified by having the knowledge, experience, competence, skill, and physical and mental fitness to fly in accordance with the authorisation.
(9) For the purposes of paragraph (8) the applicant must supply such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests as the CAA may require.
(10) The CAA may authorise a person to conduct such examinations or tests for the purposes of this article as it may specify.
(11) Subject to article 253, a pilot display authorisation granted in accordance with this article remains in force for the period indicated in the authorisation.
(12) Subject to paragraph (13), for the purposes of this article, an appropriate pilot display authorisation means an authorisation which is valid and appropriate to the intended flight and which has been—
(a) granted by the CAA under paragraph (8); or
(b) granted by the competent authority of a JAA Full Member State.
(13) A pilot display authorisation granted by the competent authority of a JAA Full Member State is not an appropriate pilot display authorisation for the purposes of this article if the CAA has given a direction to that effect.
(14) A direction may be issued under paragraph (13) either for a particular authorisation, a specified category of authorisations or generally.
(15) Paragraph (1) does not apply to—
(a) a flying display which takes place at an aerodrome in the occupation of the Ministry of Defence or of any visiting force or any other premises in the occupation or under the control of the Ministry of Defence; or
(b) a flying display at which the only participating aircraft are military aircraft.
(16) Paragraphs (1) to (5) do not apply to a flying display at which the only participating aircraft are balloons.
(17) Subject to paragraph (18), the flying display director must not permit any military aircraft to participate in a flying display unless the director complies with any conditions concerning military aircraft subject to which the permission for the flying display may have been granted.
(18) Nothing in this article applies to an aircraft race or contest or to an aircraft taking part in such a race or contest or to the pilot in command or pilot whether or not such race or contest is held in association with a flying display.
(19) No person may be carried during flights for the purpose of flying displays or demonstration flying (except for the minimum required flight crew), unless the prior permission of the CAA has been obtained.

Towing of gliders
87. (1) An aircraft in flight must not tow a glider unless—
(a) the towing aircraft has a certificate of airworthiness and—
(i) that certificate has been issued or rendered valid for that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; and
(ii) that certificate, or the flight manual for the aircraft, includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose; or
(b) the towing aircraft has been authorised to do so by—
(i) the CAA; or
(ii) an organisation approved by the CAA to provide such an authorisation.
(2) The length of the combination of towing aircraft, tow rope and glider in flight must not exceed 150 metres.
(3) The pilot in command of an aircraft which is about to tow a glider must be satisfied, before the towing aircraft takes off that—
(a) the tow rope is in good condition and is of adequate strength for the purpose;
(b) the combination of towing aircraft and glider, having regard to its performance in the conditions to be expected on the intended flight and to any obstructions at the place of departure and on the intended route, is capable of safely taking off, reaching and maintaining a safe height at which to separate the combination;
(c) after separation the towing aircraft can make a safe landing at the place of intended destination;
(d) signals have been agreed and communication established with persons suitably stationed so as to enable the glider to take off safely; and
(e) emergency signals have been agreed between the pilot in command of the towing aircraft and the pilot in command of the glider, to be used, respectively, by the pilot in command of the towing aircraft to indicate that the tow should immediately be released by the glider, and by the pilot in command of the glider to indicate that the tow cannot be released.
(4) The glider must be attached to the towing aircraft by means of the tow rope before the aircraft takes off.

Towing, picking up and raising of persons and articles
88. (1) Subject to the provisions of this article, an aircraft in flight must not, by means external to the aircraft, tow any article, other than a glider, or pick up or raise any person, animal or article, unless—
(a) there is a certificate of airworthiness and—
(i) that certificate has been issued or rendered valid for that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; and
(ii) that certificate, or the flight manual for the aircraft, includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose; or
(b) the aircraft has been authorised to do so by—
(i) the CAA; or
(ii) an organisation approved by the CAA to provide such an authorisation.
(2) An aircraft must not launch or pick up tow ropes, banners or similar articles other than at an aerodrome.
(3) An aircraft in flight must not tow any article, other than a glider, at night or when flight visibility is less than one nautical mile.
(4) The length of the combination of towing aircraft, tow rope, and article in tow, must not exceed 150 metres.
(5) A helicopter must not fly at any height over a congested area of a city, town or settlement at any time when any article, person or animal is suspended from the helicopter.
(6) A passenger must not be carried in a helicopter at any time when an article, person or animal is suspended from the helicopter, other than—
(a) a passenger who has duties to perform in connection with the article, person or animal;
(b) a passenger who has been picked up or raised by means external to the helicopter; or
(c) a passenger who it is intended will be lowered to the surface by means external to the helicopter.
(7) Nothing in this article—
(a) prohibits the towing in a reasonable manner by an aircraft in flight of any radio aerial, any instrument which is being used for experimental purposes, or any signal, apparatus or article required or permitted by or under this Order to be towed or displayed by an aircraft in flight;
(b) prohibits the picking up or raising of any person, animal or article in an emergency or for the purpose of saving life;
(c) applies to any aircraft while it is flying in accordance with the B Conditions; or
(d) permits the towing or picking up of a glider otherwise than in accordance with article 87.

Dropping of articles and animals
89. (1) Articles and animals (whether or not attached to a parachute) must not be dropped, or permitted to drop, from an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (4), articles and animals (whether or not attached to a parachute) must not be dropped, or permitted to drop, to the surface from an aircraft flying over the United Kingdom except—
(a) under and in accordance with the terms of an aerial application certificate granted under article 91; or
(b) with the permission of the CAA.
(3) Paragraph (2) does not apply to the dropping of articles by, or with the authority of, the pilot in command of the aircraft in any of the following circumstances—
(a) the dropping of articles for the purpose of saving life;
(b) the jettisoning, in case of emergency, of fuel or other articles in the aircraft;
(c) the dropping of ballast in the form of fine sand or water;
(d) the dropping of articles solely for the purpose of navigating the aircraft in accordance with ordinary practice or with the provisions of this Order; or
(e) the dropping at an aerodrome of tow ropes, banners, or similar articles towed by aircraft.
(4) Paragraph (2) does not apply to the lowering of any article or animal from a helicopter to the surface, if—
(a) there is a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid for the helicopter under the law of the country in which it is registered; and
(b) that certificate or the flight manual for the helicopter includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose.
(5) In this article, “dropping” includes projecting and lowering.

Dropping of persons and grant of parachuting permissions
90. (1) Subject to paragraphs (9), (10) and (11), a person must not drop, be dropped or be permitted to drop to the surface or jump from an aircraft flying over the United Kingdom except under and in accordance with the terms of either a police air operator's certificate or a parachuting permission granted by the CAA under this article.
(2) A person must not drop, be dropped or be permitted to drop from an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property.
(3) The CAA must grant a parachuting permission if it is satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the permission and is competent to conduct parachuting safely, having regard in particular to the applicant's—
(a) previous conduct and experience; and
(b) equipment, organisation, staffing and other arrangements.
(4) An aircraft must not be used for the purpose of dropping persons unless the aircraft—
(a) has a certificate of airworthiness and—
(i) that certificate has been issued or rendered valid for that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; and
(ii) that certificate, or the flight manual for the aircraft, includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose; or
(b) has been authorised for the purpose of dropping persons by—
(i) the CAA; or
(ii) an organisation approved by the CAA to provide such an authorisation,
and is operated in accordance with a written permission granted by the CAA under this article; or
(c) is operated under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(5) Every applicant for and holder of a parachuting permission must make available to the CAA if requested a parachuting manual.
(6) The holder of a parachuting permission must make such amendments or additions to its parachuting manual as the CAA may require.
(7) The holder of a parachuting permission must make its parachuting manual available to every employee or person who is engaged or may engage in parachuting activities conducted by the holder.
(8) The manual must contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable such employees or persons to perform their duties.
(9) Nothing in this article applies to the descent of persons by parachute from an aircraft in an emergency.
(10) Nothing in this article prohibits the lowering of any person in an emergency or for the purpose of saving life.
(11) Nothing in this article prohibits the lowering of any person from a helicopter to the surface if there is a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid for the helicopter under the law of the country in which it is registered and that certificate or the flight manual for the helicopter includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose.
(12) In this article, “dropping” includes projecting and lowering.

Dropping articles for purposes of agriculture etc. and grant of aerial application certificates
91. (1) An aircraft must not be used for the dropping of articles for the purposes of agriculture, horticulture or forestry or for training for the dropping of articles for any of such purposes, otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of an aerial application certificate granted to the operator of the aircraft under paragraph (2).
(2) The CAA must grant an aerial application certificate if it is satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the certificate and is competent to secure the safe operation of the aircraft specified in the certificate on flights for the purposes specified in paragraph (1), having regard in particular to the applicant's—
(a) previous conduct and experience; and
(b) equipment, organisation, staffing and other arrangements.
(3) If the CAA grants an aerial application certificate it may do so subject to such conditions it deems appropriate, including conditions for ensuring that the aircraft and any article dropped from it do not endanger persons or property in the aircraft or elsewhere.
(4) Every applicant for and holder of an aerial application certificate must make available to the CAA if requested an aerial application manual.
(5) The holder of an aerial application certificate must make its aerial application manual available to every member of the operating staff.
(6) The manual must contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable the operating staff to perform their duties.
(7) The holder of an aerial application certificate must make such amendments or additions to the manual as the CAA may require.

CHAPTER 4 Other aerial activities

Mooring, tethering, towing, use of cables, etc.
92. (1) This article applies to or in relation to—
(a) balloons except unmanned free balloons;
(b) gliders;
(c) kites;
(d) parascending parachutes; and
(e) airships,
within the United Kingdom (which are referred to in this article as “relevant aircraft”).
(2) A relevant aircraft which is launched, moored, tethered or ground towed must not be operated—
(a) in such a manner as to—
(i) represent a hazard to other airspace users; or
(ii) without the permission of the CAA, result in any part of the relevant aircraft whilst it is being launched or ground towed, or its tether, mooring or towing equipment, extending more than 60 metres above ground level;
(b) within ... airspace notified for the purpose of this article;
Words in art. 92(2)(b) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 22(b)
(c) within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the notified operating hours of that aerodrome except—
(i) during the day and in Visual Meteorological Conditions; and
(ii) with the permission of the person in charge of the aerodrome, the appropriate air traffic control unit or the CAA.
Words in art. 92(2)(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 22(a)
(3) A relevant aircraft which is flown, launched, moored, tethered or ground towed must be operated in accordance with any guidance issued from time to time by the CAA relating to such operation.
(4) An airship—
(a) must not be moored within 2km of a congested area unless—
(i) it is moored on a notified aerodrome; or
(ii) it has the permission of the CAA;
(b) must not be moored within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome unless it has the permission of the person in charge of the aerodrome or the air traffic control unit;
(c) when moored in the open must be securely moored and must not be left unattended.
(5) A balloon—
(a) in captive flight must be securely moored and must not be left unattended unless it is fitted with a device which ensures its automatic deflation if it breaks free of its moorings;
(b) in captive or tethered flight must not be flown within 60 metres of any vessel, vehicle or structure except with the permission of the person in charge of any such vessel, vehicle or structure.

Release of small balloons
93. (1) A person must not cause or permit—
(a) a group of small balloons of more than 1,000 in number to be simultaneously released at a single site wholly or partly within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the notified operating hours of that aerodrome unless that person has given to the CAA at least 28 days previous notice in writing of the release;
(b) a group of small balloons of more than 2,000 but not more than 10,000 in number to be simultaneously released at a single site—
(i) within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph; or
(ii) within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the notified operating hours of that aerodrome,
except with the permission of the CAA; and
(c) a group of small balloons greater than 10,000 in number to be simultaneously released at a single site except with the permission of the CAA.
(2) In this article, a specified number of balloons counts as “simultaneously released at a single site” if released during a period of not more than 15 minutes from within an area not more than 1km square.
Art. 93(2) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 23

Small unmanned aircraft : requirements
94. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Word in art. 94 heading inserted (30.7.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/623), arts. 1(2), 6(a)
Art. 94 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 6 (with art. 13)

Certain unmanned aircraft: permission for flights that are over or near aerodromes
94A. (1) If the permission that is required under paragraph (4) of this article for a flight, or a part of a flight, by an unmanned aircraft has not been obtained—
(a) the UAS operator must not cause or permit the unmanned aircraft to be flown on that flight or that part of the flight, and
(b) the remote pilot must not fly the unmanned aircraft on that flight or that part of that flight.
(2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94A(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 7(3) (with art. 13)
(3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94A(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 7(3) (with art. 13)
(4) Subject to paragraph (4A), permission for a flight, or a part of a flight, by an unmanned aircraft in the flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome is required—
(a) from any air traffic control unit at the protected aerodrome, if the flight, or the part of the flight, takes place during the operational hours of the air traffic control unit;
(b) from any flight information service unit at the protected aerodrome, if the flight, or the part of the flight, takes place during the operational hours of the flight information service unit and either—
(i) there is no air traffic control unit at the protected aerodrome, or
(ii) the flight, or the part of the flight, takes place outside the operational hours of the air traffic control unit at the protected aerodrome;
(c) from the operator of the protected aerodrome, if—
(i) there is neither an air traffic control unit nor a flight information service unit at the protected aerodrome, or
(ii) the flight, or the part of the flight, takes place outside the operational hours of any such unit or units at the protected aerodrome.
Words in art. 94A(4) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 7(4)(a) (with art. 13)
Words in art. 94A(4) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 7(4)(b) (with art. 13)
(4A) Permission is not required under paragraph (4) for a flight, or a part of a flight, by an unmanned aircraft subject to certification.
Art. 94A(4A) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 7(5) (with art. 13)
(5) In this article, “operational hours”, in relation to an air traffic control unit or flight information service unit, means the operational hours—
(a) notified in relation to the unit, or
(b) set out in the UK military AIP in relation to the unit.
(6) In this article and article 94B, “protected aerodrome” means—
(a) an ... certified aerodrome,
Word in art. 94A(6) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1593), regs. 1(2), 85(2)
(b) a Government aerodrome,
(c) a national licensed aerodrome, or
(d) an aerodrome that is prescribed, or of a description prescribed, for the purposes of this paragraph.
(7) The “flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome” is to be determined for the purposes of this article in accordance with the following table—
Type of protected aerodrome	The “flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome”
A protected aerodrome which is— (a) an ... certified aerodrome, (b) a Government aerodrome, or (c) a national licensed aerodrome, and which has an aerodrome traffic zone.	The flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome consists of— (a) the aerodrome traffic zone at the aerodrome, (b) any runway protection zones at the aerodrome, and (c) any additional boundary zones at the aerodrome.
A protected aerodrome which is— (a) an ... certified aerodrome, (b) a Government aerodrome, or (c) a national licensed aerodrome, but which does not have an aerodrome traffic zone.	The flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome consists of the airspace extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the level of the aerodrome within the area bounded by a circle centred on the notified mid-point of the longest runway and having a radius of two nautical miles. But if the longest runway does not have a notified mid-point, the mid-point of that runway is to be used instead for the purposes of determining the flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome.
A protected aerodrome that is prescribed, or of a description prescribed, under paragraph (6)(d).	The flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome consists of the zone that is prescribed for the purposes of this paragraph.
Words in art. 94A(7) substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(1)(a)
Words in art. 94A(7) table substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(1)(b)
Word in art. 94A(7) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1593), regs. 1(2), 85(2)
Arts. 94A-94G inserted (30.7.2018 for specified purposes, 30.11.2019 in so far as not already in force) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/623), arts. 1(2)(4), 7
Arts. 94A, 94B substituted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 4
Art. 94A(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 7(2) (with art. 13)

Interpretation of expressions used in the definition of “flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome”
94B. (1) This article makes provision about the meaning of expressions used in the definition of “flight restriction zone of a protected aerodrome” in article 94A(7) that applies in relation to a protected aerodrome which is—
(a) an ... certified aerodrome,
Word in art. 94B(1)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1593), regs. 1(2), 85(3)
(b) a Government aerodrome, or
(c) a national licensed aerodrome,
and which has an aerodrome traffic zone.
Words in art. 94B(1) substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(2)
(2) Subject to paragraph (4), there is one runway protection zone for each runway threshold of each runway at the aerodrome.
(3) A “runway protection zone”, in relation to a runway threshold at the aerodrome, is the airspace extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the level of the aerodrome within the area bounded by a rectangle—
(a) whose longer sides measure 5 km,
(b) whose shorter sides measure—
(i) 1 km (except in the case of Heathrow Airport), or;
(ii) 1.5 km, in the case of Heathrow Airport, and
(c) which is positioned so that—
(i) one of the shorter sides of the rectangle (“side A”) runs across the runway threshold, and
(ii) the two longer sides of the rectangle are parallel to, and equidistant from, the extended runway centre line as it extends from side A out to, and beyond, the runway end to which the runway threshold relates.
(4) There is no runway protection zone—
(a) for any runway threshold at the London Heliport;
(b) for any runway threshold that is prescribed, or of a description prescribed, for the purposes of this paragraph.
(5) The “runway threshold” of a runway at the aerodrome is the location that, for the purpose of demarcating the start of the portion of the runway that is useable for landing, is—
(a) notified as the threshold of the runway, or
(b) set out as the threshold of the runway in the UK military AIP.
(6) The “extended runway centre line”, in relation to a runway at the aerodrome, is an imaginary straight line which runs for the length of the runway along its centre and then extends beyond both ends of the runway.
(7) An “additional boundary zone” is the airspace extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the level of the aerodrome within any part of the area between—
(a) the boundary of the aerodrome, and
(b) a line that is 1 km from the boundary of the aerodrome (the “1 km line”),
that is neither within the aerodrome traffic zone nor within any runway protection zone at the aerodrome.
(8) The 1 km line is to be drawn so that the area which is bounded by it includes every location that is 1 km from the boundary of the aerodrome, measured in any direction from any point on the boundary.
Words in art. 94B heading substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(2)

Certain unmanned aircraft: permission for flights that are over or near space sites
94BA. (1) If the permission that is required under paragraph (2) for a flight, or a part of a flight, by an unmanned aircraft has not been obtained—
(a) the UAS operator must not cause or permit the unmanned aircraft to be flown on that flight or that part of the flight, and
(b) the remote pilot must not fly the unmanned aircraft on that flight or that part of the flight.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), permission for a flight, or part of a flight, by an unmanned aircraft in the flight restriction zone of a protected space site is required from the operator of the protected space site.
(3) Permission is not required under paragraph (2) for a flight, or a part of a flight, by an unmanned aircraft subject to certification.
(4) In this article—
“protected space site” means—
(a) a spaceport, as defined by section 3(2) of the Space Industry Act 2018, or
(b) an installation at sea, at which controlled and planned landings of spacecraft take place or are to take place, which can be moved from place to place without major dismantling or modification,
which is not a certified aerodrome, a Government aerodrome or a national licensed aerodrome;
“spacecraft” has the meaning given in section 2(6) of the Space Industry Act 2018.
(5) The “flight restriction zone of a protected space site” consists of the airspace extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the level of the protected space site within the area bounded by a circle centred on the mid-point of the launch pad that has the largest area and which has a radius of five kilometres.
Art. 94BA inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(3)

Certain small unmanned aircraft: registration as an SUA operator
94C. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94C omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 8 (with art. 13)

Certain small unmanned aircraft: requirement for registration as SUA operator
94D. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94D omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 8 (with art. 13)

Certain small unmanned aircraft: competency of remote pilots
94E. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94E omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 8 (with art. 13)

Certain small unmanned aircraft: requirement for acknowledgement of competency
94F. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94F omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 8 (with art. 13)

Meaning of “remote pilot” and “SUA operator”
94G. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 94G omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 8 (with art. 13)

Small unmanned surveillance aircraft
95. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 95 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 8 (with art. 13)

Rockets
96. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to—
(a) small rockets of which the total impulse of the motor or combination of motors exceeds 160 Newton-seconds; and
(b) large rockets.
(2) This article does not apply to—
(a) an activity to which the Outer Space Act 1986 applies; ...
1986 c.38.
Word in art. 96(2)(a) omitted (19.8.2021) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(4)(a)
(aa) an activity to which the Space Industry Act 2018 applies; or
Art. 96(2)(aa) inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(4)(b)
(b) a military rocket.
(3) No person may launch a small rocket unless the conditions in paragraph (4), and any of the conditions in paragraphs (5) and (6) which are applicable, are satisfied.
Words in art. 96(3) substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(4)(c)
(4) The first condition is that the person launching the rocket is satisfied on reasonable grounds that—
(a) the flight can be safely made; and
(b) the airspace within which the flight will take place is, and will throughout the flight remain, clear of any obstructions including any aircraft in flight.
(5) The second condition is that the person launching the rocket on a flight within controlled airspace has obtained the permission of the appropriate air traffic control unit for aircraft flying in that airspace.
(6) The third condition is that the person launching the rocket on a flight within an aerodrome traffic zone of an aerodrome during its notified operating hours—
(a) has obtained the permission of the air traffic control unit at the aerodrome; or
(b) if there is no air traffic control unit, has obtained from the aerodrome flight information service unit at that aerodrome information to enable the flight within the zone to be conducted safely; or
(c) if there is no air traffic control unit and no aerodrome flight information service unit, has obtained information from the air/ground communications service unit at that aerodrome to enable the flight to be conducted safely;
(7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 96(7) omitted (19.8.2021) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(4)(d)
(8) A flight by a large rocket must be carried out under and in accordance with a permission granted by the CAA to the person launching the rocket.
(9) The CAA may only grant permission under paragraph (8) if satisfied that—
(a) the person launching the rocket—
(i) has provided a safety case which demonstrates that the risks to public safety and to property are as low as reasonably practicable; and
(ii) has in place adequate insurance arrangements in respect of those risks for each proposed launch; and
(b) the level of risk to public safety and to property is acceptable to the CAA.
Art. 96(9) inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 5(4)(e)

CHAPTER 5 Dangerous goods

Carriage of dangerous goods
97. (1) The Secretary of State may make regulations prescribing—
(a) the classification of certain articles and substances as dangerous goods;
(b) the categories of dangerous goods which an aircraft may not carry;
(c) the conditions which apply to the loading on, suspension beneath and carriage by an aircraft of dangerous goods;
(d) the manner in which dangerous goods must be packed, marked, labelled and consigned before being loaded on, suspended beneath or carried by an aircraft;
(e) any other provisions for securing the safety of aircraft and any apparatus attached to aircraft, and the safety of persons and property on the surface in relation to the loading on, suspension beneath or carriage by an aircraft of dangerous goods;
(f) the persons to whom information about the carriage of dangerous goods must be provided;
(g) the documents which must be produced to the CAA or an authorised person on request; and
(h) the powers to be conferred on an authorised person relating to the enforcement of the regulations made under this article.
(2) It is an offence to contravene or permit the contravention of or fail to comply with any regulations made under this article.
(3) The provisions of this article and of any regulations made under this article are additional to and not in derogation from articles 98 and 99.

Carriage of weapons and of munitions of war – requirement for permission and for pilot in command to be informed
98. (1) This article applies to a non-Part-21 aircraft.
Word in art. 98(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 26 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) Subject to article 100(1) and (3), an aircraft must not carry any munition of war unless—
(a) the munition of war is carried with the permission of the CAA; and
(b) the pilot in command of the aircraft is informed in writing by the operator before the flight commences of the type, weight or quantity and location of any munition of war on board or suspended beneath the aircraft and any conditions of the permission of the CAA.
(3) Subject to article 100(2) and (3), it is unlawful for an aircraft to carry any sporting weapon or munition of war unless it is stowed in the aircraft in a place that is inaccessible to passengers during flight.

Prohibition on carrying on board sporting weapons or munitions of war
99. (1) Subject to article 100(2), (2A) and (3), it is unlawful for a person to carry or have in their possession or take or cause to be taken on board an aircraft, to suspend or cause to be suspended beneath an aircraft or to deliver or cause to be delivered for carriage on an aircraft any sporting weapon or munition of war unless the provisions of paragraph (2) are complied with.
Words in art. 99(1) substituted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 3
(2) The provisions referred to in paragraph (1) are that—
(a) the sporting weapon or munition of war—
(i) is either part of the baggage of a passenger on the aircraft or consigned as cargo;
(ii) is stowed in the aircraft in a place that is inaccessible to passengers during flight; and
(iii) in the case of a firearm, is unloaded;
(b) information about the sporting weapon or munition of war has been supplied by that passenger or by the consignor to the operator before the flight commences; and
(c) the operator consents to the carriage of such sporting weapon or munition of war by the aircraft.

Exceptions concerning carriage of weapons and munitions of war
100. (1) In the case of an aircraft which is flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate the pilot in command of the aircraft must be informed of the matters referred to in article 98(2)(b) but need not be so informed in writing.
(2) Article 98(3) and article 99 do not apply to or in relation to an aircraft which is flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(2A) Article 99 does not apply to a police officer who takes a munition of war on board an aircraft if—
(a) the officer is acting in the course of the officer’s duty; and
(b) the munition of war is removed from the aircraft before the aircraft takes off.
Art. 100(2A) inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 4
(3) Nothing in this Part applies to any sporting weapon or munition of war taken or carried on board an aircraft registered in a country other than the United Kingdom if the sporting weapon or munition of war may under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered be lawfully taken or carried on board for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft or of persons on board.

CHAPTER 6 Air operator certificates

Requirement for and grant of national air operator's certificate
101. (1) Subject to article 134, an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not fly on a public transport flight, otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of—
(a) a national air operator's certificate granted to the operator of the aircraft under paragraph (2), certifying that the holder of the certificate is competent to secure that aircraft operated by the holder on such flights are operated safely;
(b) a Part-CAT air operator certificate issued to the operator of the aircraft by the CAA; or
(c) in the case of an A to A public transport flight by an aeroplane, an air operator certificate specified in sub-paragraphs (a) or (b) ...
Words in art. 101(1)(c) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 27 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The CAA must grant a national air operator's certificate if it is satisfied that the operator is competent to secure the safe operation of aircraft of the types specified in the certificate on flights of the description and for the purposes specified, having regard in particular to the operator's—
(a) previous conduct and experience; and
(b) equipment, organisation, staffing, maintenance and other arrangements.

Requirement for an EU-OPS air operator certificate
102. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 102 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 28 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Requirement for a Part-CAT air operator certificate
103. A person must not operate an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom on a commercial air transport operation otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of a Part-CAT air operator certificate issued to the operator of the aircraft by the CAA.

Offering commercial transport and public transport flights
104. (1) No person may hold anyone out (whether the person who is being held out is the same person as the one who is holding out or is another person) as being one who may offer flights in an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom for the purpose of public transport or commercial air transport unless the person being held out holds—
(a) in the case of a commercial air transport operation, a valid Part-CAT air operator certificate;
(b) in the case of a public transport flight, a valid national air operator's certificate or a valid Part-CAT air operator certificate; or
(c) in the case of an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation, a valid Part-CAT air operator certificate ...
Words in art. 104(1)(c) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 29 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply where—
(a) the person being held out as offering such a flight has applied for a certificate which would authorise the flight in question in accordance with paragraph (1);
(b) the person holding out reasonably believes that the person being held out will hold such a certificate by the time the offered flight is made.

CHAPTER 7 Additional requirements for public transport operations

SECTION 1 Duties of the pilot in command

Public transport of passengers – pilot in command to ensure demonstration of lifejackets
105. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to a flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers by an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) This article does not apply to a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(3) Subject to paragraph (6), in the case of a flight in an aircraft which is not a seaplane and on which it is intended to reach a point more than 30 minutes flying time from the nearest land, the pilot in command must take all reasonable steps to ensure that before take-off all passengers are given a demonstration of the method of use of the lifejackets required by or under this Order for the use of passengers.
Word in art. 105(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 24
(4) Subject to paragraph (6), and if the circumstances described in paragraph (5) apply, in the case of an aircraft which is not a seaplane and which is required by article 112(2) to carry cabin crew, the pilot in command must take all reasonable steps to ensure that before take-off all passengers are given a demonstration of the method of use of the lifejackets required by or under this Order for the use of passengers.
(5) The circumstances referred to in paragraph (4) are that—
(a) it is intended to proceed beyond gliding distance from land; or
(b) in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the aircraft would be forced to land onto water.
(6) If the requirement to give a demonstration required by paragraph (3) or (4) arises only because it is reasonably possible that the aircraft would be forced to land onto water at one or more of the likely alternate destinations the demonstration need not be given until after the decision has been taken to divert to such a destination.
(7) In the case of an aircraft which is a seaplane, the pilot in command must take all reasonable steps to ensure that before take-off all passengers are given a demonstration of the method of use of the lifejackets required by or under this Order for the use of passengers.
(8) In this article, flying time is calculated by reference to the speed specified in the relevant certificate of airworthiness or flight manual as the speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water while flying in still air.

Public transport of passengers – pilot in command to ensure crew, passengers and baggage secure
106. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to a public transport flight by an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) This article does not apply to a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(3) Before the aircraft takes off and before it lands, the pilot in command must take all reasonable steps to ensure that—
(a) the crew of the aircraft are properly secured in their seats; and
(b) any cabin crew carried in compliance with article 112(2) are properly secured in seats which are in a passenger compartment and which are so situated that the cabin crew can readily assist passengers.
(4) During the period and in the circumstances described in paragraph (5) the pilot in command must take all reasonable steps to ensure that—
(a) all passengers of two years of age or more are properly secured in their seats by safety belts (with diagonal shoulder strap, if required to be carried) or safety harnesses;
(b) all passengers under the age of two years are properly secured by means of a child restraint device; and
(c) those items of baggage in the passenger compartment—
(i) which the pilot in command reasonably considers ought by virtue of their size, weight or nature to be properly secured are properly secured; and
(ii) in the case of an aircraft capable of seating more than 30 passengers, are either stowed in the passenger compartment stowage spaces approved by the CAA for the purpose or carried in accordance with the terms of a permission granted by the CAA.
(5) The period and circumstances referred to in paragraph (4) are—
(a) after the embarkation of its passengers for the purpose of taking off, from the moment when the aircraft first moves until after it has taken off;
(b) before it lands, until it comes to rest for the purpose of the disembarkation of its passengers; and
(c) whenever, by reason of turbulent air or any emergency occurring during the flight the pilot in command considers it necessary to take the steps specified in paragraph (4).

Public transport of passengers – pilot in command to ensure demonstration of use of oxygen
107. (1) Subject to paragraph (4), this article applies to a flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers by an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) The pilot in command of a flight to which this article applies in an aircraft for which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989 must take all reasonable steps to ensure that each of the actions described in column 1 of the following table is carried out.
Column 1	Column 2
Before the aircraft reaches flight level 100 the method of use of the oxygen provided in the aircraft in compliance with the requirements of article 119 and Part 1 of Schedule 6 is demonstrated to all passengers.	Before the aircraft reaches flight level 130 the method of use of the oxygen provided in the aircraft in compliance with the requirements of article 119 and Part 1 of Schedule 6 is demonstrated to all passengers.
When flying above flight level 120 all passengers and cabin crew are recommended to use oxygen.	When flying above flight level 130 all passengers and cabin crew are recommended to use oxygen.
During any period when the aircraft is flying above flight level 100 oxygen is used by all the flight crew of the aircraft.	During any period when the aircraft is flying above flight level 100 oxygen is used by all the flight crew of the aircraft.
(3) The pilot in command of a flight to which this article applies in an aircraft for which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989 must take all reasonable steps to ensure that each of the actions described in either column 1 or in column 2 of the table in paragraph (2) is carried out.
(4) This article does not apply—
(a) to a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate; or
(b) in a case where a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals is maintained in all passenger and crew compartments throughout the flight.

SECTION 2 Crew to be carried

Pilots required on public transport flights by flying machines over 5,700kg
108. A flying machine registered in the United Kingdom must carry at least two pilots as members of the flight crew if it—
(a) is flying for the purpose of public transport; and
(b) has a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg.

Pilots required on public transport flights by aeroplanes of 5,700kg or less
109. (1) Subject to paragraph (4) an aeroplane registered in the United Kingdom must carry at least two pilots as members of its flight crew if it—
(a) is flying for the purpose of public transport;
(b) has a maximum take-off mass of 5,700kg or less;
(c) is flying in circumstances where the pilot in command is required to comply with the Instrument Flight Rules; and
(d) comes within paragraph (2).
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), an aeroplane comes within this paragraph if it has—
(a) one or more turbine jets;
(b) one or more turbine propeller engines and is provided with a means of pressurising the personnel compartments;
(c) two or more turbine propeller engines and a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine;
(d) two or more turbine propeller engines and a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of fewer than 10, where it is not provided with a means of pressurising the personnel compartments; or
(e) two or more piston engines.
(3) An aeroplane does not come within paragraph (2)(d) or (e) if it is equipped with an autopilot which has been approved by the CAA for the purposes of this article and which is serviceable on take-off.
(4) An aeroplane—
(a) described in paragraph (2)(d) or (e) which is equipped with an approved autopilot is not required to carry two pilots even though before take-off the approved autopilot is found to be unserviceable, if the aeroplane flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA;
(b) described in paragraph (2)(c), (d) or (e) which is flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate is not required to carry two pilots.

Pilots required on public transport flights by helicopters of 5,700kg or less
110. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a helicopter registered in the United Kingdom must carry at least two pilots as members of its flight crew if it—
(a) is flying for the purpose of public transport;
(b) has a maximum take-off mass of 5,700kg or less; and
(c) is flying in circumstances where the pilot in command is required to comply with the Instrument Flight Rules or is flying at night on a special VFR flight.
(2) A helicopter described in paragraph (1) is not required to carry two pilots if it—
(a) is equipped with an autopilot with altitude hold and heading mode which is serviceable on take-off;
(b) is equipped with such an autopilot even though before take-off the autopilot is found to be unserviceable, if the helicopter flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA; or
(c) is flying by day and remains clear of cloud and with the surface in sight.

Flight navigators or navigational equipment required on public transport flights
111. (1) In the circumstances specified in paragraph (2) an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom flying on a public transport flight must carry—
(a) a flight navigator as a member of the flight crew; or
(b) navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown.
(2) The circumstances referred to in paragraph (1) are that on the route or on any diversion from it, being a route or diversion planned before take-off, the aircraft is intended to be more than 500 nautical miles from the point of take-off measured along the route to be flown.
(3) A flight navigator carried in compliance with paragraph (1) must be carried in addition to any person who is carried in accordance with this Part to perform other duties.

Required cabin crew of aircraft
112. (1) This article applies to each public transport flight by an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom which has a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 and on which at least one passenger is carried.
(2) The crew of the aircraft on each such flight must include cabin crew.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), on each such flight there must be carried not less than one member of the cabin crew and if there are 51 to 100 inclusive passenger seats installed, not less than two members and, if there are 101 to 150 inclusive passenger seats installed, not less than three members and so on.
Words in art. 112(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 25
(4) The number of members of the cabin crew calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) need not be carried if—
(a) the CAA has granted permission to the operator to carry a lesser number on that flight;
(b) the operator carries the number specified in that permission; and
(c) the operator complies with any conditions subject to which the permission is granted.

SECTION 3 Operator responsibilities

Flight data monitoring, accident prevention and flight safety programme
113. (1) The operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom flying for the purpose of public transport must establish and maintain an accident prevention and flight safety programme.
(2) The operator of an aeroplane registered in the United Kingdom with a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg flying for the purpose of public transport must include a flight data monitoring programme as part of its accident prevention and flight safety programme.
(3) The sole objective of an accident prevention and flight safety programme is the prevention of accidents and incidents and each programme must be designed and managed to meet that objective.
(4) It is not the purpose of an accident prevention and flight safety programme to apportion blame or liability.

Public transport – operator's responsibilities in relation to crew
114. (1) The operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not permit the aircraft to fly for the purpose of public transport without first designating from among the flight crew a pilot to be the pilot in command of the aircraft for the flight.
(2) Subject to paragraph (5), the operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not permit any person to be a member of the crew during any public transport flight (except a flight for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft) unless—
(a) that person has had the training, experience, practice and periodical tests specified in Part 3 of Schedule 9 for the duties to be performed; and
(b) the operator is satisfied that person is competent to perform their duties, and in particular to use the equipment provided in the aircraft for the purpose of those duties.
(3) The operator must maintain, preserve, produce and supply information respecting records relating to the matters specified in paragraph (2) in accordance with Part 3 of Schedule 9.
(4) During any flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers the operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not permit any member of the flight crew to simulate emergency manoeuvres and procedures which the operator has reason to believe will adversely affect the flight characteristics of the aircraft.
(5) Paragraph (2) does not apply to the operator of a balloon registered in the United Kingdom provided that the operator—
(a) ensures that any person acting as a member of the crew during any flight for the purpose of public transport has had the training, experience, practice and periodical tests for the duties to be performed required by—
(i) paragraph 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 9 within a period of three years immediately preceding the commencement of the flight; and
(ii) paragraph 2(5)(b) of Part 3 of Schedule 9 within a period of 13 months immediately preceding the commencement of the flight; and
(b) specifies the periods mentioned in sub-paragraphs (a)(i) and (ii) in its operations manual.

Public transport – operator's responsibilities in relation to routes and aerodromes
115. (1) The operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not permit the aircraft to fly for the purpose of public transport without first being satisfied using every reasonable means that the aeronautical radio stations and navigational aids serving the intended route or any planned diversion are adequate for the safe navigation of the aircraft.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not permit the aircraft to fly for the purpose of public transport without first being satisfied using every reasonable means that—
(a) every place (whether or not an aerodrome) at which it is intended to take off or land and any alternate place (whether or not an aerodrome) at which a landing may be made are suitable for the purpose; and
(b) in particular those places will be adequately staffed and equipped and will have such staffing and equipment as may be prescribed at the time at which it is reasonably estimated such a take-off or landing will be made to ensure so far as practicable the safety of the aircraft and its passengers.
(3) The operator of an aircraft is not required for the purposes of this article to be satisfied as to the adequacy of fire-fighting, search, rescue or other services which are required only after the occurrence of an accident.

Operator responsibilities in relation to communications
115A. The operator must ensure that an aircraft operated as a controlled flight shall maintain continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate communication channel of, and establish two-way communication as necessary with, the appropriate air traffic control unit, or else follow alternative instructions given by the appropriate air traffic control unit in respect of aircraft forming part of aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome.
Art. 115A inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 5

SECTION 4 Operations and training manuals

Operations manual
116. (1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), this article applies to public transport aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) This article does not apply to an aircraft used for the time being solely for flights not intended to exceed 60 minutes in duration, which are either—
(a) flights solely for training persons to perform duties in an aircraft; or
(b) flights intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome.
(3) This article does not apply to an aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly, solely under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(4) An operator of an aircraft to which this article applies must—
(a) make available to each member of the operating staff an operations manual which complies with paragraph (5);
(b) ensure that each copy of the operations manual is kept up to date; and
(c) ensure that on each flight every member of the crew has access to a copy of every part of the operations manual which is relevant to the crew member's duties on the flight.
(5) An operations manual—
(a) complies with this paragraph if, subject to sub-paragraph (b), it contains all information and instructions necessary to enable the operating staff to perform their duties as such including in particular information and instructions relating to the matters specified in Part 1 of Schedule 9;
(b) is not required to contain any information or instructions available in a flight manual accessible to the persons by whom the information or instructions may be required.
(6) An aircraft to which this article applies must not fly unless, at least 30 days before such flight, the operator of the aircraft has supplied to the CAA a copy of the whole of the operations manual in effect for the aircraft.
(7) Any amendments or additions to the operations manual must be supplied to the CAA by the operator before or immediately after they come into effect.
(8) If an amendment or addition relates to the operation of an aircraft to which the operations manual did not previously apply, that aircraft must not fly for the purpose of public transport until the amendment or addition has been supplied to the CAA.
(9) The operator must make such amendments or additions to the operations manual as the CAA may require for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft, or of persons or property carried in it, or for the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.

Training manual
117. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to public transport aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) This article does not apply to aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly, solely under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(3) The operator of every aircraft to which this article applies must—
(a) make available to every person appointed by the operator to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice or periodical tests required under article 114(2) a training manual which complies with paragraph (4); and
(b) ensure that each copy of that training manual is kept up to date.
(4) A training manual complies with this paragraph if it contains all information and instructions necessary to enable a person appointed by the operator to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice and periodical tests required under article 114(2) to perform that person's duties, including in particular information and instructions relating to the matters specified in Part 2 of Schedule 9.
(5) An aircraft to which this article applies must not fly unless at least 30 days before such flight the operator of the aircraft has supplied to the CAA a copy of the whole of the training manual relating to the crew of that aircraft.
(6) Any amendments or additions to the training manual must be supplied to the CAA by the operator before or immediately after they come into effect.
(7) If an amendment or addition relates to training, experience, practice or periodical tests on an aircraft to which the training manual did not previously apply, that aircraft must not fly for the purpose of public transport until the amendment or addition has been supplied to the CAA.
(8) The operator must make such amendments or additions to the training manual as the CAA may require for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft, or of persons or property carried in it, or for the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.

SECTION 5 Equipment

Wearing of survival suits by crew
118. (1) Paragraph (2) does not apply to any member of the crew of an aircraft flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(2) Each member of the crew of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must wear a survival suit if such a suit is required to be carried by article 119 and Part 1 of Schedule 6.

Equipment of public transport aircraft
119. (1) This article applies to public transport aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies must not fly unless it is equipped and marked in accordance with Schedule 6 (aircraft equipment).
(3) The equipment in Schedule 6 must be—
(a) of a type approved by ... the CAA either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation to that aircraft, unless it is equipment listed in paragraph 3 of that Schedule; and
Words in art. 119(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 30 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) installed in a manner approved by ... the CAA.
(4) The equipment carried in compliance with this article must be installed or stowed and kept stowed, maintained and adjusted, so as to be readily accessible and capable of being used by the person for whose use it is intended.
(4A) Any equipment installed or carried in an aircraft must be installed, carried, maintained and adjusted so that such equipment—
(a) does not impair the airworthiness of the aircraft or the proper functioning of any other instrument or equipment necessary for the safety of the aircraft; and
(b) is not a source of danger to the aircraft.
Art. 119(4A) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 26
(5) The position of equipment provided for emergency use must be indicated by clear markings in or on the aircraft.
(6) In every such aircraft registered in the United Kingdom there must be provided individually for each passenger or, if the CAA so permits in writing, exhibited in a prominent position in every passenger compartment, a notice which complies with paragraph (7).
(7) A notice complies with this paragraph if it is relevant to the aircraft in question and contains pictorial—
(a) instructions on the brace position to be adopted in the event of an emergency landing;
(b) instructions on the method of use of the safety belts and safety harnesses as appropriate;
(c) information as to where emergency exits are to be found and instructions as to how they are to be used; and
(d) information as to where the lifejackets, escape slides, life rafts and oxygen masks, if required to be provided by paragraph (2), are to be found and instructions as to how they are to be used.
(8) The operator of a helicopter on which a vibration health monitoring system is required to be carried by paragraph 4(12) of Part 1 of Schedule 6 must operate that equipment in accordance with procedures approved by the CAA.

Functioning of exits – commercial air transport aeroplanes and public transport aeroplanes and helicopters
120. (1) This article applies to A to A commercial air transport aeroplanes, public transport aeroplanes and public transport helicopters registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) Subject to paragraph (5), whenever an aeroplane or helicopter to which this article applies is carrying passengers, every exit from the aeroplane or helicopter and every internal door in the aeroplane or helicopter must be in working order.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), during take-off and landing and during any emergency, every exit and door in the aeroplane or helicopter must be kept free of obstruction and must not be fastened by locking or otherwise so as to prevent, hinder or delay its use by passengers.
(4) In the case of—
(a) an exit which, in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA either generally or in relation to a class of aeroplane or helicopter or a particular aeroplane or helicopter, is not required for use by passengers, the exit may be obstructed by cargo;
(b) a door between the flight crew compartment and any adjacent compartment to which passengers have access, the door may be locked or bolted if the pilot in command of the aeroplane or helicopter so determines, for the purpose of preventing access by passengers to the flight crew compartment;
(c) any internal door which is so placed that it cannot prevent, hinder or delay the exit of passengers from the aeroplane or helicopter in an emergency if it is not in working order, paragraph (3) does not apply.
(5) Subject to compliance with paragraph (6), if one, but not more than one, exit from an aeroplane or helicopter becomes inoperative at a place where it is not reasonably practicable for it to be repaired or replaced, nothing in this article prevents that aeroplane or helicopter from carrying passengers until it next lands at a place where the exit can be repaired or replaced.
(6) This paragraph is complied with if—
(a) the number of passengers carried and the position of the seats which they occupy are in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA either in relation to the particular aeroplane or helicopter or to a class of aeroplane or helicopter; and
(b) in accordance with arrangements so approved, the inoperative exit is fastened by locking or otherwise, the words “exit” or “emergency exit” are covered, and the exit is marked by a red disc at least 23 centimetres in diameter with a horizontal white bar across it bearing the words “No Exit” in red letters.

Marking of exits – commercial air transport aeroplanes and public transport aeroplanes and helicopters
121. (1) This article applies to A to A commercial air transport aeroplanes, public transport aeroplanes and public transport helicopters registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) An operator must ensure that every exit from an aeroplane or helicopter to which this article applies is marked in accordance with this article.
(3) Every exit from such an aeroplane or helicopter must be marked on interior surfaces with the words “exit” or “emergency exit” in capital letters, which must be red in colour and if necessary outlined in white to contrast with the background.
(4) Every exit from such an aeroplane or helicopter must be marked on exterior surfaces with the words “exit” or “emergency exit” in capital letters, which must be located on a background which provides adequate contrast.
(5) Every exit from such an aeroplane or helicopter must be marked on interior surfaces on or near the inside surface of the door or other closure of the exit with instructions in English and with diagrams to indicate the correct method of opening the exit, which must be red in colour and located on a background which provides adequate contrast.
(6) Every exit from such an aeroplane or helicopter which may be opened from the outside must be marked on or near the exterior surface of the door or other closure of the exit with instructions in English and with diagrams to indicate the correct method of opening the exit, which must be located on a background which provides adequate contrast.
(7) The markings required by this article must be—
(a) painted, or affixed by other equally permanent means; and
(b) kept clean and unobscured at all times.

SECTION 6 Loading

Operator's duty concerning the loading of public transport aircraft
122. (1) This Section applies to an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom which is being loaded for a public transport flight.
(2) The operator of an aircraft to which this Section applies must not cause or permit it to be loaded except in accordance with this Section.
(3) In this Section, loading includes the suspension of a load from the aircraft.

Requirement to load in accordance with loading instructions
123. (1) An aircraft to which this Section applies may only be loaded under the supervision of a person whom the operator has caused to be supplied with written instructions as to the distribution and securing of the load (in this Section called “the loading instructions”) which—
(a) conform with paragraph (3); and
(b) subject to article 126(1), conform with paragraph (4).
(2) The operator must not cause or permit the aircraft to be loaded in contravention of the loading instructions.
(3) Loading instructions conform with this paragraph if they ensure—
(a) the load may safely be carried on the flight; and
(b) any conditions of the certificate of airworthiness or flight manual for the aircraft relating to the loading of the aircraft are complied with.
(4) Loading instructions conform with this paragraph if they—
(a) indicate the additional items included in the weight of the aircraft prepared for service;
(b) show the position of the centre of gravity of the aircraft at that weight; and
(c) indicate the weight of the aircraft prepared for service.
(5) In sub-paragraph (4)(c), the weight of the aircraft prepared for service means the aggregate of the weight of the aircraft, shown in the weight schedule referred to in article 43, and the weight of such additional items in or on the aircraft as the operator thinks fit to include.

Requirement for a load sheet
124. (1) Subject to article 126(1) and (2), the person supervising the loading of an aircraft to which this Section applies must—
(a) before the commencement of any such flight, prepare and sign a load sheet in duplicate conforming to the prescribed requirements; and
(b) if not the pilot in command of the aircraft, submit the load sheet for examination by the pilot in command of the aircraft who must sign it.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), one copy of the load sheet—
(a) must be carried in the aircraft when article 229 so requires until the flights to which it relates have been completed; and
(b) together with the loading instructions, must be preserved by the operator for at least six months after the flights and must not be carried in the aircraft.
(3) In the case of—
(a) an aeroplane which has a maximum take-off mass of not more than 2,730kg; or
(b) a helicopter,
if it is not reasonably practicable for the copy of the load sheet to be kept on the ground it may be carried in the aeroplane or helicopter in a container approved by the CAA for that purpose.

Carriage of baggage
125. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom and flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers must not cause or permit baggage to be carried in the passenger compartment of the aircraft unless—
(a) the baggage can be properly secured; and
(b) in the case of an aircraft capable of seating more than 30 passengers, the amount of baggage does not exceed the capacity of the spaces in the passenger compartment approved by the CAA for the purpose of stowing baggage.
(2) Paragraph (1)(b) does not apply to baggage carried in accordance with a permission issued under article 106(4)(c)(ii).

Loading instructions: exceptions
126. (1) The loading instructions need not conform with article 123(4) and article 124(1) does not apply if the aircraft—
(a) has a maximum take-off mass of not more than 1,150kg;
(b) has a maximum take-off mass of not more than 2,730kg and the flight is—
(i) solely for training persons to perform duties in an aircraft and intended not to exceed 60 minutes in duration; or
(ii) intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and not to exceed 60 minutes in duration; or
(c) is a helicopter which—
(i) has a maximum take-off mass of not more than 3,000kg; and
(ii) a total seating capacity of not more than five persons.
(2) Article 124(1) does not apply if—
(a) the load and the way it is to be distributed and secured on the next intended flight are to be unchanged from the previous flight; and
(b) the pilot in command of the aircraft makes and signs an endorsement to that effect on the load sheet for the previous flight, indicating—
(i) the date of the endorsement;
(ii) the place of departure on the next intended flight; and
(iii) the next intended place of destination.

SECTION 7 Performance requirements and operating minima

Aeroplanes registered in the United Kingdom – public transport operating conditions and performance requirements
127. (1) An aeroplane registered in the United Kingdom and flying for the purpose of public transport must comply with section 1 of Subpart C of Part-CAT unless it is flying under and in accordance with a permission granted to the operator by the CAA under paragraph (5).
(2) The assessment of the ability of an aeroplane to comply with paragraph (1) must be based on the information as to its performance approved by the State of design and contained in the flight manual for the aeroplane.
(3) In the event of the approved information in the flight manual being insufficient for that purpose such assessment must be based on additional data acceptable to the CAA.
(4) The Secretary of State may make regulations prescribing requirements for aeroplanes registered in the United Kingdom, which are not Part-CAT aeroplanes, in respect of their weight and related performance and flight in specified meteorological conditions or at night.
Words in art. 127(4) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 27
Word in art. 127(4) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 31 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) The CAA may grant for any aeroplane a permission authorising it to comply with the applicable provisions of the requirements prescribed in accordance with paragraph (4).
(6) Subject to paragraph (8), an aeroplane to which this paragraph applies must fly at such an altitude as would enable the aeroplane—
(a) if it has one engine only, in the event of the failure of that engine; or
(b) if it has more than one engine, in the event of the failure of one of those engines and with the remaining engine or engines operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified in the certificate of airworthiness or flight manual for the aeroplane,
to reach a place at which it can safely land at a height sufficient to enable it to do so.
(7) Paragraph (6) applies to an aeroplane registered in the United Kingdom flying under and in accordance with a permission granted by the CAA under paragraph (5) and flying over water for the purpose of public transport.
(8) Paragraph (6) does not apply to an aeroplane flying as may be necessary for the purpose of taking off or landing.
(9) Without prejudice to paragraph (6), an aeroplane to which this paragraph applies must not fly over water for the purpose of public transport so as to be more than 60 minutes flying time from the nearest shore, unless the aeroplane has more than two power units.
(10) Paragraph (9) applies to an aeroplane flying under and in accordance with a permission granted by the CAA under paragraph (5) if either that permission or the certificate of airworthiness of the aeroplane designates the aeroplane as being of performance group X.
(11) For the purposes of paragraph (9), flying time is calculated at normal cruising speed with one power unit inoperative.

Helicopters registered in the United Kingdom – public transport operating conditions and performance requirements
128. (1) The Secretary of State may make regulations prescribing requirements for helicopters registered in the United Kingdom which are not Part-CAT helicopters in respect of their weight and related performance and flight in specified meteorological conditions or at night.
Words in art. 128(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 28
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a helicopter registered in the United Kingdom must not fly for the purpose of public transport unless the helicopter complies with the applicable provisions of the requirements which have been prescribed for its weight and related performance and flight in specified meteorological conditions or at night.
(3) Paragraph (2) does not apply to a flight for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in a helicopter.
(4) The assessment of the ability of a helicopter to comply with paragraph (2) must be based on the information as to its performance approved by the State of design and contained in the flight manual for the helicopter.
(5) In the event of the approved information in the flight manual being insufficient for that purpose the assessment must be based on additional data acceptable to the CAA.
(6) Subject to paragraph (7), a helicopter registered in the United Kingdom when flying over water for the purpose of public transport must fly at such an altitude as would enable the helicopter—
(a) if it has one engine only, in the event of the failure of that engine; or
(b) if it has more than one engine, in the event of the failure of one of those engines and with the remaining engine or engines operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified in the certificate of airworthiness or flight manual for the helicopter,
to reach a place at which it can safely land at a height sufficient to enable it to do so.
(7) Paragraph (6) does not apply to a helicopter flying as may be necessary for the purpose of taking off or landing.

Helicopters registered in the United Kingdom carrying out Performance Class 3 operations
129. (1) Without prejudice to article 128(6), a helicopter registered in the United Kingdom carrying out a Performance Class 3 operation must comply with paragraphs (2), (3), (4) and (5).
(2) The helicopter must not fly over water for the purpose of public transport in the specified circumstances unless it is equipped with the required apparatus.
(3) If the helicopter is equipped with the required apparatus and is flying under and in accordance with the terms of a national air operator's certificate, it must not fly in the specified circumstances on any flight for more than three minutes except with the permission in writing of the CAA.
(4) If the helicopter is equipped with the required apparatus and is flying on a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate on which—
(a) is carried any passenger who is not a permitted passenger, it must not fly in the specified circumstances on any flight for more than 20 minutes; or
(b) no passenger is carried other than a permitted passenger, it must not fly over water on any flight for more than 10 minutes while more than five minutes from a point from which it can make an autorotative descent to land suitable for an emergency landing.
(5) The helicopter must not fly for the purpose of public transport over that part of the bed of the River Thames which lies between the following points—
(a) Hammersmith Bridge (512918N) (0001351W); and
(b) Greenwich Reach (512906N) (0000043W),
between the ordinary high water marks on each of its banks unless it is equipped with the required apparatus.
(6) A helicopter registered in the United Kingdom which is specified in its flight manual as being in either Group A or Category A may fly for the purpose of public transport in accordance with the weight and related performance requirements prescribed for helicopters carrying out Performance Class 3 operations if—
(a) the maximum take-off mass for the helicopter is less than 3,175kg; and
(b) not more than nine passengers are carried.
(7) For the purposes of this article, flying time must be calculated on the assumption that a helicopter is flying in still air at the speed specified in the flight manual for the helicopter as the speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water.
(8) In this article—
“permitted passenger” means—
(a) a police officer;
(b) an employee of a police authority in the course of their duty;
(c) a medical attendant;
(d) the holder of a valid pilot's licence who intends to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate and who is being carried for the purpose of training or familiarisation;
(e) a CAA Flight Operations Inspector;
(f) a Home Office police aviation adviser;
(g) an employee of a fire and rescue authority under the Fire and Rescue Services Act 2004 ;
2004 c.21.
(h) an Officer of Revenue and Customs;
(i) an employee of the Ministry of Defence in the course of their duty; or
(j) such other person being carried for purposes connected with police operations as may be permitted by the CAA;
“required apparatus” means apparatus approved by the CAA enabling the helicopter to which it is fitted to land safely on water; and
“specified circumstances” means, in respect of a helicopter, circumstances in which it is more than 20 seconds flying time from a point from which it can make an autorotative descent to land suitable for an emergency landing.

Helicopters registered in the United Kingdom carrying out Performance Class 1 operations and Performance Class 2 operations
130. (1) Without prejudice to article 128(6), a helicopter registered in the United Kingdom carrying out a Performance Class 1 operation or Performance Class 2 operation which is flying under and in accordance with the terms of—
(a) a national air operator's certificate, must not fly over water for the purpose of public transport for more than 15 minutes during any flight unless it is equipped with the required apparatus;
(b) a police air operator's certificate on which any passenger is carried who is not a permitted passenger and which is not equipped with the required apparatus, must not fly over any water on any flight for more than 15 minutes.
(2) A helicopter registered in the United Kingdom which is specified in its flight manual as being in either Group A or Category A may fly for the purpose of public transport in accordance with the weight and related performance requirements prescribed for helicopters carrying out a Performance Class 2 operation if—
(a) the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter is less than 5,700kg; and
(b) not more than 15 passengers are carried on the helicopter.
(3) In this article “permitted passenger” and “required apparatus” have the same meaning as in article 129(8).

Public transport aircraft registered in the United Kingdom – aerodrome operating minima
131. (1) This article applies to public transport aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (4), the operator of an aircraft to which this article applies must establish and include in the operations manual or the police operations manual relating to the aircraft the required information.
(3) In relation to any flight where—
(a) neither an operations manual nor a police operations manual is required by this Order; or
(b) it is not practicable to include the required information in the operations manual or the police operations manual,
the operator must comply with paragraph (4).
(4) If this paragraph applies the operator of the aircraft must—
(a) before the commencement of the flight, cause to be supplied in writing to the pilot in command of the aircraft the required information calculated in accordance with the required data and instructions provided in accordance with paragraph (5) or (6); and
(b) cause a copy of the required information to be retained on the ground for at least three months after the flight.
(5) The operator of an aircraft for which an operations manual or a police operations manual is required by this Order must include in that operations manual the required data and instructions.
(6) The operator of an aircraft for which neither an operations manual nor a police operations manual is required by this Order must—
(a) before the commencement of the flight, cause to be supplied in writing to the pilot in command of the aircraft the required data and instructions; and
(b) cause a copy of the required data and instructions to be retained on the ground for at least three months after the flight.
(7) The specified aerodrome operating minima must not permit a landing or take-off in circumstances where the relevant aerodrome operating minima declared by the competent authority would prohibit it, unless that authority otherwise permits in writing.
(8) In establishing aerodrome operating minima for the purposes of this article the operator of the aircraft must take into account—
(a) the type and performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft and any relevant conditions in its certificate of airworthiness;
(b) the composition of its crew;
(c) the physical characteristics of the relevant aerodrome and its surroundings;
(d) the dimensions of the runways which may be selected for use; and
(e) in relation to any aids, visual or otherwise, to assist aircraft in approach, landing or take-off, being aids which the crew of the aircraft are trained and equipped to use—
(i) whether or not there are such aids in use at the relevant aerodrome;
(ii) the nature of any such aids that are in use; and
(iii) the procedures for approach, landing and take-off which may be adopted according to the existence or absence of such aids.
(9) The operator must establish in relation to each runway which may be selected for use such aerodrome operating minima as are appropriate to each set of circumstances which may reasonably be expected.
(10) An aircraft to which this article applies must not commence a flight at a time when—
(a) the cloud ceiling or the runway visual range at the aerodrome of departure is less than the relevant minimum specified for take-off; or
(b) according to the information available to the pilot in command of the aircraft it would not be able without contravening paragraphs (11) or (12), to land at the aerodrome of intended destination at the estimated time of arrival there and at any destination alternate aerodrome at any time at which according to a reasonable estimate the aircraft would arrive there.
(11) An aircraft to which article 116 applies, when making a descent to an aerodrome, must not descend from a height of 1,000 feet or more above the aerodrome to a height less than 1,000 feet above the aerodrome if the relevant runway visual range at the aerodrome is at the time less than the specified minimum for landing.
(12) An aircraft to which this article applies, when making a descent to an aerodrome, must not—
(a) continue an approach to landing at any aerodrome by flying below the relevant specified decision height; or
(b) descend below the relevant specified minimum descent height,
unless in either case from such height the specified visual reference for landing is established and is maintained.
(13) If, according to the information available, an aircraft would as regards any flight be required to be flown in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules at the aerodrome of intended landing, the pilot in command of the aircraft must select before take-off a destination alternate aerodrome unless no aerodrome suitable for that purpose is available.
(14) In this article—
“the required information” means detailed information about the aerodrome operating minima appropriate to every aerodrome of intended departure or landing and every destination alternate aerodrome;
“specified” in relation to aerodrome operating minima means such detailed information about aerodrome operating minima as has been specified by the operator in, or are ascertainable by reference to, the operations manual relating to that aircraft, or supplied in writing to the pilot in command of the aircraft by the operator in accordance with paragraph (4); and
“the required data and instructions” means such data and instructions as will enable the pilot in command of the aircraft to calculate the aerodrome operating minima appropriate to aerodromes the use of which cannot reasonably have been foreseen by the operator before the commencement of the flight.

Public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom – aerodrome operating minima
132. (1) This article applies to public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies must not fly in or over the United Kingdom unless the operator has made available to the flight crew aerodrome operating minima which comply with paragraph (3) for every aerodrome at which it is intended to land or take off and every destination alternate aerodrome.
(3) The aerodrome operating minima provided in accordance with paragraph (2) must be no less restrictive than either—
(a) minima calculated in accordance with the notified method for calculating aerodrome operating minima; or
(b) minima which comply with the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered,
whichever are the more restrictive.
(4) An aircraft must not undertake low visibility operations otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of an approval to do so granted in accordance with the law of the country in which it is registered.
(5) An aircraft must not take off from or land at an aerodrome in the United Kingdom in contravention of the specified aerodrome operating minima.
(6) Without prejudice to paragraphs (4) and (5), when making a descent to an aerodrome an aircraft must not descend from a height of 1,000 feet or more above the aerodrome to a height of less than 1,000 feet above the aerodrome if the relevant runway visual range at the aerodrome is at the time less than the specified minimum for landing.
(7) Without prejudice to paragraphs (4) and (5), when making a descent to an aerodrome an aircraft must not—
(a) continue an approach to landing at any aerodrome by flying below the relevant specified decision height; or
(b) descend below the relevant specified minimum descent height,
unless, in either case, the specified visual reference for landing is established and maintained from such height.
(8) In this article, “specified” means specified by the operator in the aerodrome operating minima made available to the flight crew under paragraph (2).

A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operations and public transport flights by aeroplanes at night or in specified meteorological conditions
133. (1) This article applies to any aeroplane which is—
(a) registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom;
(b) powered by one power unit only; and
(c) flying on an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation or a public transport flight.
(2) An aeroplane to which this article applies must not fly—
(a) at night; or
(b) when there is prevailing at the aerodrome of departure or forecast for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land or at any destination alternate aerodrome—
(i) a cloud ceiling of less than 1,000 feet; or
(ii) visibility of less than one nautical mile.

SECTION 8 State aircraft operations

Requirement for, and grant of, police air operator's certificate
134. (1) A flight by an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom in the service of a police authority is, for the purposes of this Order, deemed to be a public transport flight.
(2) If any passenger is carried on such a flight it is deemed to be for the purpose of the public transport of passengers.
(3) Save as otherwise expressly provided, the provisions of this Order and of any regulations made under this Order must be complied with in relation to a flight in the service of a police authority as if that flight were for the purpose of public transport or the public transport of passengers.
(4) An aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must not fly on any flight in the service of a police authority otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of—
(a) a police air operator's certificate granted to the operator;
(b) a national air operator's certificate granted to the operator;
(c) both—
(i) a Part-CAT air operator certificate granted to the operator; and
(ii) Part-CAT and Part-ORO as though the flight were a commercial air transport operation; or
(d) a permission given by the CAA.
(5) The CAA must grant a police air operator’s certificate if it is satisfied that the applicant is competent to secure that the operation of aircraft of the types specified in the certificate will be as safe as is appropriate when flying on flights of the description and for the purposes specified, having regard in particular to the applicant’s—
(a) previous conduct and experience; and
(b) equipment, organisation, staffing, maintenance and other arrangements.
Art. 134(5) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 29

Police operations manual
135. (1) This article applies to an aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly, solely under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies must not fly except under and in accordance with the terms of Part 1 and Part 2 of a police operations manual, Part 1 of which must have been approved for the aircraft by the CAA.
(3) The operator of every aircraft to which this article applies must—
(a) make available to each member of its operating staff a police operations manual which complies with paragraph (4);
(b) ensure that each copy of the operations manual is kept up to date; and
(c) ensure that on each flight every member of the crew has access to a copy of every part of the operations manual which is relevant to the crew member's duties on the flight.
(4) A police operations manual complies with this paragraph if it contains all information and instructions necessary to enable the operating staff to perform their duties as such.
(5) An aircraft to which this article applies must not fly unless, at least 30 days before such flight, the operator of the aircraft has supplied to the CAA a copy of Part 2 of the police operations manual in effect for the aircraft.
(6) Any amendments or additions to Part 2 of the police operations manual must be supplied to the CAA by the operator before or immediately after they come into effect.
(7) If an amendment or addition relates to the operation of an aircraft to which the police operations manual did not previously apply, that aircraft must not fly in the service of a police authority under and in accordance with the terms of the police operator's certificate until the amendment or addition has been supplied to the CAA.
(8) The operator must make such amendments or additions to the police operations manual as the CAA may require for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft, or of persons or property carried in it, or for the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.

PART 6 Aircrew

CHAPTER 1 Flight crew licensing – requirement for licence

Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
136. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person must not act as a pilot of a Part-21 aircraft that is registered in the United Kingdom without holding an appropriate licence granted, converted or rendered valid under—
(a) the Aircrew Regulation;
(b) the Sailplane Regulation; or
(c) the Balloon Regulation.
Art. 136(1) substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 4(2)
(2) A person may act as a pilot of a Part-21 aircraft without holding an appropriate licence granted, converted or rendered valid under the ... Aircrew Regulation , Sailplane Regulation or Balloon Regulation when undergoing flying training, including solo flying training authorised and supervised by a flight instructor.
Words in art. 136(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 32(4)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 136(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 32(4)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 136(2) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 4(3)
(3) Subject to the exceptions set out in articles 139 and 144 a person must not act as a flight radiotelephony operator, a flight engineer or a flight navigator of a Part-21 aircraft that is registered in the United Kingdom without holding an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order.
Words in art. 136(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 32(5) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 136 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 32(2) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
137. (1) Subject to articles 139 to 147, a person must not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft to which this paragraph applies without holding an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order.
(2) Paragraph (1) applies to any non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom other than such an aircraft that is referred to in paragraph (1)(a)(ii), (d) or (g) of Annex I of the Basic ... Regulation and that is flying for the purpose of commercial air transport (an “excepted aircraft”).
Word in art. 137(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 33(b)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 137(2) substituted (13.4.2022) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2022 (S.I. 2022/321), arts. 1(1), 5
Word in art. 137(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 33(b)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) A person must not act as a member of the flight crew of an excepted aircraft unless—
(a) the person acts as a flight radiotelephony operator, flight engineer or flight navigator and holds an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order; or
(b) the person holds an appropriate licence granted, converted or rendered valid under the ... Aircrew Regulation.
Word in art. 137(3)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 33(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 137 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 33(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Appropriate licence
138. An appropriate licence for the purposes of this Part and Schedule 8 means a licence which entitles the holder to perform the functions being undertaken in relation to the aircraft concerned on the particular flight.

Flight crew licence requirement – exception to act as flight radiotelephony operator
139. (1) A person may act as a flight radiotelephony operator within the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands and the Isle of Man without being the holder of an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order, if the conditions in paragraph (2) apply.
(2) The conditions referred to in paragraph (1) are that the person is—
(a) the pilot of a balloon or glider and does not communicate by radiotelephony with any air traffic control unit, flight information unit or air/ground communications service unit; or
(b) being trained in an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom to perform duties as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft.

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for solo flying training in non-Part-21 aircraft
140. (1) A person may act as pilot in command of a non-Part-21 aircraft for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of a pilot's licence or the inclusion or variation of any rating or certificate in a pilot's licence within the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands and the Isle of Man, without being the holder of an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order, if the conditions in paragraph (2) are satisfied.
Word in art. 140 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 34 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The conditions referred to in paragraph (1) are that—
(a) the person is at least 16 years of age unless the aircraft is a balloon or a glider, in which case the person must be at least 14 years of age;
(b) the person satisfies the requirements of paragraph (3);
(c) no other person is carried in the aircraft;
(d) the aircraft is not flying for the purpose of commercial air transport, public transport or commercial operation other than commercial operation which consists of the giving of instruction in flying or the conducting of flying examinations; and
(e) the person acts in accordance with instructions given by another person holding a pilot's licence granted under this Order or a Part-FCL licence, in each case being a licence which includes a flight instructor rating, a flight instructor certificate or a flight instructor (restricted) certificate entitling that other person to give instruction in flying the type of aircraft being flown.
(3) A person satisfies the requirements of this paragraph if the person—
(a) is the holder of a valid medical certificate issued in accordance with article 161 and complies with any conditions subject to which that certificate was issued;
(b) is the holder of a valid medical certificate issued in accordance with paragraph MED.A.030 of Part-MED and complies with any conditions subject to which that certificate was issued; or
(c) is the holder of a valid medical declaration made in accordance with article 163 which would be required by virtue of article 163(2) for the person to exercise the privileges of the relevant licence or rating.
Word in art. 140 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 34 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for dual flying training in non-Part-21 aircraft
141. (1) A person may act as pilot of a non-Part-21 aircraft of which the flight crew required to be carried by or under this Order is not more than one pilot for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of a pilot's licence or the inclusion or variation of any rating or certificate in a pilot's licence within the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands and the Isle of Man, without being the holder of an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order, if the conditions in paragraph (2) are satisfied.
Word in art. 141 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 35 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The conditions referred to in paragraph (1) are that—
(a) the aircraft is not flying for the purpose of commercial air transport, public transport or commercial operation other than commercial operation which consists of the giving of instruction in flying or the conducting of flying examinations;
(b) the person acts in accordance with instructions given by another person holding a pilot's licence granted under this Order or a Part-FCL licence, in each case being a licence which includes a flight instructor rating, a flight instructor certificate or an flight instructor (restricted) certificate entitling that other person to give instruction in flying the type of aircraft being flown; and
(c) the aircraft is fitted with—
(i) dual controls and the person is accompanied in the aircraft by the instructor who is seated at the other set of controls; or
(ii) controls designed for and capable of use by two persons and the person is accompanied in the aircraft by the instructor who is seated so as to be able to use the controls.
Word in art. 141 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 35 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for balloons
142. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 142 omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 5

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for pilot undergoing training or tests in non-Part-21 aircraft
143. (1) Unless the certificate of airworthiness in force for the aircraft otherwise requires, a person may act as pilot of a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom for the purpose of undergoing training or tests for the grant or renewal of a pilot's licence or for the inclusion, renewal or extension of a rating or certificate without being the holder of an appropriate licence, if the conditions in paragraph (2) and either paragraph (3) or (4) are satisfied.
Word in art. 143 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 36 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The condition first referred to in paragraph (1) is that no other person is carried in the aircraft or in an aircraft which it is towing except—
(a) a person carried as a member of the flight crew in compliance with this Order;
(b) a person authorised by the CAA to witness the training or tests or to conduct the tests; or
(c) if the pilot in command of the aircraft is the holder of an appropriate licence, a person carried for the purpose of being trained or tested as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft.
(3) The conditions secondly referred to in paragraph (1) are that the person acting as the pilot of the aircraft without being the holder of an appropriate licence—
(a) within the preceding six months was serving as a qualified pilot of an aircraft in any of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces; and
(b) the person's physical condition has not, so far as the person is aware, so deteriorated during that period as to render the person unfit for the licence or rating for which the training or tests are being given or conducted.
(4) The conditions thirdly referred to in paragraph (1) are that the person acting as the pilot of the aircraft without being the holder of an appropriate licence—
(a) holds a Part-FCL licence or a pilot's, a flight navigator's or a flight engineer's licence granted under article 152;
(b) the purpose of the training or tests is to enable that person to qualify under this Order for the grant of a pilot's licence or for the inclusion of an additional type in the aircraft rating in that person's licence; and
(c) the person acts under the supervision of another person who is the holder of an appropriate licence.
Word in art. 143 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 36 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for navigators and flight engineers in non-Part-21 aircraft
144. A person may act as a member of the flight crew (otherwise than as a pilot) of a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom without being the holder of an appropriate licence if—
(a) the flight is for the purpose of undergoing training or tests for the grant or renewal of a flight navigator's or a flight engineer's licence or for the inclusion, renewal or extension of a rating in such a licence; and
(b) the person acts under the supervision and in the presence of another person who is the holder of the type of licence or rating for which the person undergoing the training or tests is being trained or tested.
Word in art. 144 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 37 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 144 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 37 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for members of HM Forces
145. A person may act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom without being the holder of an appropriate licence if, in so doing, the person is acting in the course of his or her duty as a member of any of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces.

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for non-Part-21 gliders
146. A person may act as the pilot in command or co-pilot of a non-Part-21 glider without being the holder of an appropriate licence if the flight is not for the purpose of public transport.
Word in art. 146 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 38 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 146 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 38 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight crew licence requirement – exception for non-Part-21 aircraft where CAA permission granted
147. (1) Nothing in this Order prohibits the holder of a pilot's licence from acting as pilot of a non-Part-21 aircraft certificated for single pilot operation if the holder is testing any person for the purposes of articles 152(1) and (8), 154(2), 155(2), 156 or 157 with the permission of the CAA.
Word in art. 147 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 39 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) Paragraph (1) applies even though—
(a) the type of aircraft in which the test is conducted is not specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence; or
(b) the licence or personal flying log book does not include a valid certificate of test, experience or revalidation for the type of aircraft.
Word in art. 147 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 39 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of ... aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
148. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to any ... aircraft registered in a country other than the United Kingdom.
Word in art. 148 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 148(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) A person must not act as a member of the flight crew which must by or under this Order be carried in an aircraft to which this article applies unless—
(a) in the case of an aircraft flying for the purpose of commercial air transport, public transport or commercial operation, that person is the holder of an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the State of the operator; or
Word in art. 148(3)(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(c)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) in the case of an aircraft on a non-commercial flight and where the operator of the aircraft is neither resident nor established in the United Kingdom, that person is the holder of an appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or under this Order and the CAA does not give a direction to the contrary; or
Word in art. 148(3)(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(c)(ii)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 148(3)(b) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(c)(ii)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 148(3)(b) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(c)(ii)(cc) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) in the case of an aircraft on a non-commercial flight, where the operator of the aircraft is resident or established in the United Kingdom, that person is the holder of the appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under the Aircrew Regulation.
Art. 148(3)(c) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(c)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 148 heading omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 40(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of EASA aircraft and specified non-EASA aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
149. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 149 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 41 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Deeming a non-United Kingdom flight crew licence and any Part-FCL or Part-BFCL licence valid for non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom and deeming a non-United Kingdom radiotelephony licence valid for any aircraft
150. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), this article applies to any licence which authorises the holder to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft and is—
(a) granted under the law of a Contracting State other than the United Kingdom ...;
Words in art. 150(1)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 42(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) granted under the law of a relevant overseas territory; ...
Word in art. 150(1)(b) omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 6(3)(a)
(c) a Part-FCL licence ; or
Art. 150(1)(d) and word inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 6(3)(b)
(d) in the case of a balloon, a Part-BFCL licence.
(2) This article does not apply to such a licence if it authorises the holder to act as a student pilot only.
(3) Subject to paragraph (6), for the purposes of this Part, a licence to which this article applies is, unless the CAA gives a direction to the contrary, deemed to be a licence rendered valid under this Order in respect of a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.
Word in art. 150(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 42(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) Subject to paragraph (5), the privileges of a licence deemed valid under paragraph (3) are restricted so that it does not entitle the holder to act as a member of the flight crew of any aircraft flying for the purpose of public transport or commercial air transport.
(5) The restriction in paragraph (4) does not apply to a Part-FCL licence or a Part-BFCL licence.
Words in art. 150(5) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 6(4)
(6) A Part-FCL licence with single-engine piston aeroplane privileges is not deemed to be rendered valid for a microlight aeroplane unless the holder of the licence has undergone differences training in accordance with Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Schedule 8, appropriate for a microlight aeroplane class rating.
(7) A Part-FCL licence which—
(a) authorises the holder to exercise the privileges of a Part-FCL light aircraft pilot licence or a Part-FCL private pilot licence; and
(b) is valid in all respects save that the holder does not hold a medical certificate,
is deemed to be a licence rendered valid under this Order if the requirements of paragraph (8) are satisfied.
Words in art. 150(7) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 30
(8) The requirements are that the holder—
(a) has made a medical declaration in accordance with article 163(3); and
(b) complies with the conditions in article 163(5).
(9) The holder of a Part-FCL licence deemed to be rendered valid under paragraph (7) may only exercise the privileges of an equivalent private pilot licence granted under article 152.
Words in art. 150 heading inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 6(2)
Word in art. 150 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 42(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Permission required where pilot's licence does not meet relevant minimum standards
151. (1) This article applies to any pilot's licence ..., endorsed to the effect that the holder does not satisfy in full the relevant minimum standards established under the Chicago Convention.
Words in art. 151(1) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 43 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The holder of such a licence, which has been granted or rendered valid under this Order, must not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom in or over the territory of a Contracting State other than the United Kingdom, except in accordance with a permission granted by the competent authority of that State.
(3) The holder of a pilot's licence, which has been granted or rendered valid under the law of a Contracting State other than the United Kingdom, must not act as a member of the flight crew of any aircraft in or over the United Kingdom except in accordance with a permission granted by the CAA, whether or not the licence is rendered valid under this Order.

CHAPTER 2 Flight crew licensing – grant of licence and maintenance of privileges

Grant, renewal and privileges of United Kingdom flight crew licences
152. (1) Subject to article 172, the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose must grant licences of any of the classes specified in Part 1 of Schedule 8, authorising the holder to act as a member of the flight crew of a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, if it is satisfied that the applicant is—
(a) a fit person to hold the licence; and
(b) qualified by having the knowledge, experience, competence, skill and physical and mental fitness to act in the capacity to which the licence relates.
Word in art. 152(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 44 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1) the applicant must supply such evidence and undergo such assessments, examinations and tests (including in particular medical assessments and examinations) and undertake such courses of training as the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose may require.
(3) A licence granted under this article is not valid unless it has been signed by the holder in ink or indelible pencil.
(4) Subject to article 253—
(a) a licence granted under this article remains in force for the period indicated in the licence, not exceeding the period specified for a licence of that class in Part 1 of Schedule 8;
(b) if no period is indicated in the licence, it remains in force for the lifetime of the holder.
(5) A licence granted under this article may be renewed by the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose on being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person and is qualified in accordance with paragraph (1).
(6) A licence granted under this article must not be granted to any person who is under the minimum age specified for that class of licence in Part 1 of Schedule 8.
(7) Nothing in this Order obliges the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose to accept an application for the issue of a National Private Pilot's Licence when the application is not supported by such reports from such persons approved under article 268 as the CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose may specify, either generally or in a particular case or class of cases.
(8) Subject to any conditions of the licence including those specified in Part 1 of Schedule 8, the other provisions of this Part and article 253, a licence of any class entitles the holder to exercise the privileges specified for that licence in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of that Schedule under the heading “Privileges” or Chapter 3 of Part 1 of that Schedule under the heading “Privileges and conditions” on a non-Part-21 aircraft.
Word in art. 152(8) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 44 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(9) The CAA or a person approved by the CAA for that purpose may grant a licence subject to such conditions it deems appropriate.

Ratings and certificates
153. (1) The CAA may include—
(a) in any United Kingdom licence any rating or certificate specified in Chapter 1 or 2 of Part 2 of Schedule 8;
(b) in any National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) any rating or certificate specified in Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Schedule 8;
(c) in any National Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) any rating specified in Chapter 3 of Part 2 of Schedule 8.
(2) The CAA must include a rating or certificate if it is satisfied that the applicant is qualified by having the knowledge, experience, competence, skill and physical and mental fitness to act in the capacity to which the rating or certificate relates.
(3) A rating or certificate is deemed to form part of the licence.
(4) A rating or certificate of any class entitles the holder of the licence in which the rating or certificate is included to exercise the privileges specified for that rating or certificate in Part 2 of Schedule 8 on a non-Part-21 aircraft.
Word in art. 153(4) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 45 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) The CAA may grant a rating or certificate subject to such conditions as it deems appropriate.

Aerobatic rating
153A. The holder of a United Kingdom licence or National Private Pilot’s Licence (aeroplane) first issued after 30th September 2025 is not entitled to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane whilst aerobatic manoeuvres are conducted unless the licence includes an aerobatic rating in accordance with Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Schedule 8.
Art. 153A inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 7

Maintenance of privileges of aircraft ratings specified in Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Schedule 8 in United Kingdom pilot licences for balloons, airships and gyroplanes
154. (1) This article applies to United Kingdom airship, balloon and gyroplane licences.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the holder of such a pilot licence is not entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating specified in Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Schedule 8 which is included in the licence on a flight unless—
(a) the licence has a certificate of revalidation for the rating;
(b) the certificate is appropriate to the functions to be performed on that flight in accordance with Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 8; and
(c) the certificate is issued and valid in accordance with Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 8.
Words in art. 154(2) substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 8(2)
(3) The holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) is entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating specified in Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Schedule 8 which is included in the licence on a flight if the licence does not have a certificate referred to in paragraph (2) , provided that on the day of the flight the holder complies with the relevant requirements of BFCL.160 of the Balloon Regulation.
Words in art. 154(3) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 8(3)
(4) The relevant requirements of BFCL.160 referred to in paragraph (3) are—
(a) before 1st October 2029, all of BFCL.160 except paragraph (a)(1)(ii);
(b) on or after 1st October 2029, all of BFCL.160.
Art. 154(4) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 8(4)

Maintenance of privileges of aircraft ratings for United Kingdom aeroplane and helicopter licences specified in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Schedule 8
155. (1) This article applies to United Kingdom aeroplane and helicopter licences specified in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Schedule 8.
Words in art. 155(1) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 9(3)
(2) The holder of a licence to which this article applies is not entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating specified in Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Schedule 8 which is included in the licence on a flight unless—
(a) the licence has a certificate of revalidation for the rating;
(b) the certificate is appropriate, issued and valid in accordance with Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 8; and
Word in art. 155(2) inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 9(4)(a)
(c) the holder has undertaken the differences training specified in paragraph FCL 710 of Part-FCL and detailed information about that differences training has been entered in the holder’s personal flying log by the instructor who provided the training.
Art. 155(2)(c) substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 9(4)(b)
(d) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 155(2)(d) omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 9(4)(c)
Art. 155 heading substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 9(2)

Maintenance of privileges of other certificates and ratings specified in Chapter 1 or Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Schedule 8
156. (1) The holder of a United Kingdom licence is not entitled to exercise the privileges of a certificate or rating specified in paragraph (2) unless—
(a) the licence in which the certificate or rating is included has a certificate of revalidation; and
(b) the certificate of revalidation is appropriate, issued and valid in accordance with Chapter 1 or 2 of Part 3 of Schedule 8.
(2) The certificates and ratings referred to in paragraph (1) are—
(a) an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes);
(b) an instrument rating (aeroplane);
(c) an instrument rating (helicopter); and
(d) any instructor certificate.
Words in art. 156 heading inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 10

Maintenance of privileges of certificates and ratings included in a National Private Pilot’s Licence or Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licence
157. (1) Except as provided for by paragraph (2), the holder of a National Private Pilot’s Licence or Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licence is not entitled to exercise the privileges of any certificate or rating specified in Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 2 of Schedule 8 which is included in the licence unless—
(a) the licence includes a certificate of revalidation for the certificate or rating; and
(b) the certificate of revalidation is appropriate, issued and valid in accordance with the relevant entry for the rating in Chapters 1 or 2 of Part 3 of Schedule 8.
(2) The holder of a Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) may exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating included in the licence without a certificate referred to in paragraph (1)(a) provided that at the time of the intended flight they have complied with FCL.135.H and FCL.140.H of the Aircrew Regulation as appropriate to the aircraft flown.
Art. 157 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 11

Maintenance of privileges of Flight Engineers' Licences
158. The holder of a United Kingdom Flight Engineer's Licence is not entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating contained in the licence on a flight unless—
(a) the licence has a certificate of revalidation for the rating; and
(b) the certificate is appropriate, issued and valid in accordance with Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 8.

Maintenance of privileges of Flight Navigators' Licences
159. The holder of a United Kingdom Flight Navigator's Licence is not entitled to exercise the privileges of the licence on a flight to which article 111 applies unless—
(a) the licence has a certificate of revalidation; and
(b) the certificate is appropriate, issued and valid in accordance with Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 8.

CHAPTER 3 Medical certificates

Requirement for a medical certificate for a United Kingdom licence
160. (1) This article applies to any licence granted under article 152.
(2) Subject to article 163, the holder of a licence to which this article applies is not entitled to perform any of the functions to which the licence relates unless—
(a) the licence includes a valid medical certificate issued under article 161; or
(b) the holder of the licence has a valid medical certificate issued under Part-MED that is not a Light Aircraft Pilot Licence medical certificate.

Issue and validity of a medical certificate for a United Kingdom licence
161. (1) The CAA may approve a person to carry out a medical assessment or examination for the purposes of this article and to issue a medical certificate in accordance with paragraph (6).
(2) An approval may be granted generally or in a particular case or class of cases.
(3) Every applicant for, or holder of, a licence under article 152 must, whenever the CAA requires, submit to a medical assessment or examination by a person approved by the CAA.
(4) The approved person must make a report of the assessment or examination to the CAA in such form as the CAA may require.
(5) On the basis of such medical assessment or examination, the approved person must assess whether the applicant for or holder of the licence meets the requirements specified by the CAA.
(6) If the approved person assesses the applicant for or holder of the licence as meeting the requirements specified by the CAA, the approved person must issue a certificate to that effect.
(7) Subject to articles 166(3) and 253, a medical certificate is valid for the period specified in the certificate.
(8) A medical certificate forms part of the licence.

Requirement for a Part MED medical certificate for a Part-FCL , Part-SFCL or Part-BFCL licence
162. The holder of a Part-FCL , Part-SFCL or Part-BFCL licence is not entitled to exercise any of the privileges of the licence unless the holder—
(a) has a valid medical certificate in accordance with point MED.A.030 of Part-MED, or
(b) has made a medical declaration in accordance with article 163(3) and complies with the conditions in article 163(5).
Words in art. 162 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 12
Art. 162 substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 6

Medical requirements for specified United Kingdom licences and National Private Pilot's Licences
163. (1) In this article, a specified licence means—
(a) a National Private Pilot's Licence or United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence; or
(b) a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) that is restricted to commercial operation and to the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships).
(2) Subject to paragraph (7), the holder of a specified licence, or of a licence which includes the privileges of a specified licence, may exercise any of the privileges of the specified licence if the holder has—
(a) a valid medical certificate issued under article 161;
(b) a medical certificate granted under Section 2 of Subpart A of Part-MED, including one which is valid for a Light Aircraft Pilot Licence issued under Part-FCL; or
(c) made a medical declaration in accordance with paragraph (3) which has not ceased to be valid in accordance with paragraph (4) and the holder complies with the conditions in paragraph (5).
(3) The holder of a licence makes a medical declaration in accordance with this article if they—
(a) reasonably believe that they—
(i) meet the medical requirements for a Group 1 Licence issued by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency; and
(ii) are not subject to a disqualifying medical condition.
(b) make a declaration to that effect to the CAA in such form and in such manner as may be required or specified by the CAA; and
(c) in the case of a licence holder aged 70 years or more, have made such a declaration within the previous three years.
(4) A declaration made in accordance with paragraph (3)—
(a) ceases to be valid if it is withdrawn;
(b) must be withdrawn by the holder if they no longer reasonably believe that they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (3);
(c) may be withdrawn by the CAA if it has reason to believe that the holder—
(i) no longer meets the medical requirements in paragraph (3)(a)(i); or
(ii) is subject to a disqualifying medical condition.
(5) The holder of a licence who does not have a medical certificate and relies on satisfying the requirements of paragraph (3) may only exercise the privileges of the licence—
(a) in an aircraft with a maximum take-off mass of 5,700kg or less;
(b) with not more than three passengers on board;
(c) by day or when exercising the privileges of a night rating;
(d) in visual meteorological conditions or when exercising the privileges of an instrument meteorological conditions rating; and
(e) within the United Kingdom unless the holder has the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which the aircraft is being flown.
(6) For the purposes of this article, “disqualifying medical condition” means any physical or mental condition or illness, or any history of such a condition or illness, including—
(a) any alcohol or drug abuse, addiction or misuse;
(b) any neurological condition;
(c) any functional disability;
(d) any surgery or medical treatment;
(e) any collapse, fainting or loss of consciousness;
(f) any history of (a) to (e); or
(g) such other medical conditions as the CAA may specify,
that might impair the safe operation of normal flight controls or render the licence holder unfit at any time to perform any function for which the licence is granted.
(7) The holder of a specified licence wishing to exercise night rating privileges must additionally meet the colour vision requirements of MED.B.075 of Part-MED in order to be so entitled.

Issue of Light Aircraft Pilot Licence medical certificates
164. (1) For the purposes of MED.D.035(a)(2) of Part-MED, the requirements for a general medical practitioner to act as an authorised aeromedical examiner in relation to the issue, revalidation or renewal of Light Aircraft Pilot Licence medical certificates in accordance with Part-MED are those set out in paragraph (2).
(2) The requirements referred to in paragraph (1) are that the general medical practitioner must—
(a) be in general practice or be a Medical Officer of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces who is included in the General Practitioner Register maintained by the General Medical Council;
(b) hold a valid licence to practise medicine from the General Medical Council; and
(c) have access to and be able to consult the medical records of the applicant.
(3) A general medical practitioner who issues a Light Aircraft Pilot Licence medical certificate must, in relation to that certificate, keep for a period of 10 years after the expiry of the certificate—
(a) the signed and completed Light Aircraft Pilot Licence medical application form;
(b) a copy of the completed assessment or examination forms; and
(c) a copy of the medical certificate.

Occupational health medical practitioners
165. For the purposes of paragraph MED.D.040(b) of Part-MED an “occupational health medical practitioner” is any doctor listed in the Specialist Register of the General Medical Council as having specialist registration in occupational medicine.

Licence holder not to act as member of flight crew when unfit
166. (1) Subject to paragraph (6), a person (P) must not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom if P knows or suspects P’s physical or mental condition renders P temporarily or permanently unfit to perform such functions or to act in such capacity, including unfitness by reason of—
(a) injury or sickness;
(b) taking or using any prescribed or non-prescribed medication which is likely to interfere with the ability to perform such functions;
(c) receipt of any medical, surgical or other treatment that is likely to interfere with the ability to perform such functions;
(d) the effects of any psychoactive substance; or
(e) fatigue.
Word in art. 166(1) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 31(a)(i)
Words in art. 166(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 31(a)(ii)
Words in art. 166(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 31(a)(iii)
(2) Every holder of a medical certificate issued under article 161 ... who—
(a) suffers any personal injury involving incapacity to undertake the holder's functions as a member of the flight crew;
(b) suffers any significant illness involving incapacity to undertake those functions throughout a period of 21 days or more; or
(c) in the case of a woman, has reason to believe that she is pregnant,
must inform an aeromedical examiner authorised by the CAA of such injury, illness or pregnancy, as soon as possible in the case of injury or pregnancy, and as soon as the period of 21 days has expired in the case of illness.
Words in art. 166(2) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 31(b)
(3) The medical certificate ... is suspended upon the occurrence of such injury or the expiry of such period of illness or the confirmation of the pregnancy.
Words in art. 166(3) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 31(c)
(4) In the case of injury or illness the suspension ceases upon—
(a) the holder being medically assessed under arrangements made by the CAA and pronounced fit to resume the holder's functions as a member of the flight crew; or
(b) the CAA exempting, subject to such conditions it deems appropriate, the holder from the requirement of a medical assessment.
(5) In the case of pregnancy, the suspension—
(a) may be lifted by the CAA or an aeromedical examiner authorised by the CAA for such period and subject to such conditions as the CAA or the aeromedical examiner thinks fit; and
(b) ceases upon the holder being medically assessed under arrangements made by the CAA after the pregnancy has ended and pronounced fit to resume her functions as a member of the flight crew.
(6) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the holder of a Part-FCL licence when the holder is exercising the privileges of the licence in a Part-21 aircraft.
Words in art. 166(6) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 46 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 4 Flight crew licensing – general provisions

Person not to fly after failing test
167. The holder of a licence who, on the last occasion when the holder took a test for the purposes of articles 154, 155, 156, 157, 158 or 159 failed that test, is not entitled to fly in the capacity for which that test would have qualified the holder had it been passed.

Approval of training and testing
168. The CAA may, for the purposes of articles 36 and 187, and Chapter 2 of this Part—
(a) approve any course of training or instruction;
(b) authorise a person to conduct such examinations or tests as it may specify; and
(c) approve a person to provide any course of training or instruction.
Words in art. 168 substituted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 5

Declared training organisation
168A. (1) A person may provide a course of training as required under articles 152 and 153 for the grant of a licence or rating where they have completed a declaration as required by this article and that declaration has been accepted by the CAA.
(2) A declaration must contain at least the following information—
(a) the name of the declarant;
(b) the declarant’s principal place of business in the United Kingdom;
(c) the contact details of the aerodromes and the operating sites of the declarant;
(d) the names and contact details of the following—
(i) the representative of the declarant;
(ii) the head of training of the declarant; and
(iii) any deputy head of training of the declarant;
(e) a list of all aircraft to be used for the training if any;
(f) the date of intended commencement of the training;
(g) a safety policy;
(h) a statement confirming the declarant will apply that safety policy during all training activities covered by the declaration;
(i) the type of training the declarant intends to provide;
(j) a statement confirming the declarant will, during all training activities covered by the declaration, provide and continue to provide the training in accordance with the declaration.
(3) The CAA must—
(a) accept a declaration where it is in the form specified by the CAA and contains at least the information referred to in paragraph (2); and
(b) the CAA consider that the declarant is able to provide the declared training.
(4) The CAA must inform the declarant in writing of its acceptance of the declaration or inform the declarant in writing of the reasons why the declaration is not accepted.
(5) The CAA must publish the required form of declaration, including the information to be included in the declaration in paragraph (2).
(6) A declaration no longer entitles the provision of training specified within it where—
(a) the declarant has notified the CAA of the cessation of the training activities covered by the declaration;
(b) the declarant has not provided the training for more than 36 consecutive months; or
(c) the CAA notifies the declarant that it is not satisfied that the training is being provided in accordance with the declaration.
(7) Any notice given under paragraph (6)(c) must give written reasons and—
(a) the declaration must be treated as if it was suspended under article 253(2); and
(b) the suspension remains in effect until the CAA informs the declarant that the CAA is satisfied that the declarant is able to provide the training in accordance with the declaration.
Art. 168A inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 13

Validation of licences
169. ... The CAA may issue a certificate of validation rendering valid for the purposes of this Order any flight crew licence granted under the law of any country other than that of the United Kingdom.
Words in art. 169 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 47 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Instruction in flying
170. (1) This article applies to instruction in flying given to any person flying or about to fly a flying machine or glider for the purpose of becoming qualified for—
(a) the grant of a pilot's licence under this Order or Part-FCL; or
(b) the inclusion, variation, renewal or revalidation of any rating, certificate or qualification in a pilot's licence under this Order or Part-FCL.
(2) A person must not give any instruction in flying to which this article applies unless—
(a) they hold a licence, granted or rendered valid under this Order or a Part-FCL licence, entitling them to act as pilot in command of the aircraft for the purpose and in the circumstances under which the instruction is to be given; and
(b) the licence includes an instructor's rating or certificate entitling the holder to give the instruction.

Glider pilots – minimum age
171. A person under 14 years of age must not act as pilot in command of a non-Part-21 glider.
Word in art. 171 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 48 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Licences and ratings no longer to be granted
172. (1) The CAA must not grant—
(a) a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes); or
(b) a United Kingdom Airline Transport Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes),
to any person who was not on 31st December 2002 the holder of such a licence.
(2) The CAA must not grant—
(a) a United Kingdom Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships); or
(b) a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot’s Licence (Balloons),
to any person who was not on 30th September 2025 the holder of such a licence.
Art. 172 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 14

Status of licences issued by the CAA
173. (1) This article applies to pilot licences issued by the CAA prior to 17th September 2012 that were not entitled to be mutually recognised by the JAA Full Member States in accordance with JAR-FCL 1 or JAR-FCL 2.
(2) The following have effect—
(a) any United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) that includes a restriction specified in paragraph (3) is deemed to be a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes);
(b) any United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes), other than a licence referred to in sub-paragraph (a), is deemed to be a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes);
(c) any JAA Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) that is endorsed to the effect that the licence does not fully comply with JAR-FCL is deemed to be a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes);
(d) any JAA Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) that is endorsed to the effect that the licence does not fully comply with JAR-FCL is deemed to be a United Kingdom Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes); and
(e) any JAA Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter) that is endorsed to the effect that the licence does not fully comply with JAR-FCL is deemed to be a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters).
(3) A restriction referred to in paragraph (2)(a) is a restriction that the holder must not fly as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purposes of public transport or commercial operation, apart from commercial operation for—
(a) the giving of instruction in flying;
(b) the conducting of flying examinations for the purpose of this Order;
(c) the towing of a glider in flight;
(d) the giving of flying displays; or
(e) parachute dropping.

CHAPTER 5 Fatigue of crew and protection of crew from cosmic radiation

Application and interpretation of this Chapter
174. (1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (4), articles 175 and 176 apply to an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom which is—
(a) flying on a public transport flight;
(b) operated by the holder of a national air operator's certificate;
(c) a helicopter flying on a commercial air transport operation; or
(d) an aeroplane with a flight crew of one pilot flying for the purpose of commercial air transport.
(2) Article 176(1) also applies to an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom which is flying on—
(a) a non-commercial flight; and
(b) a commercial operations flight.
Words in art. 174(2) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 32
(3) In this Chapter—
“day” means a continuous period of 24 hours beginning at midnight Co-ordinated Universal Time;
“flight time” means all time spent by a person as a member of the crew while it is in flight in—
(a) a civil aircraft, whether or not registered in the United Kingdom, which is flying for the purpose of—
(i) commercial air transport;
(ii) public transport
(iii) commercial operation; or
(iv) a flight subject to Part-NCC; or
(b) a military aircraft.
(4) For the purposes of this Chapter, a helicopter is deemed to be in flight from the moment the helicopter first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the rotors are next stopped.

Fatigue of crew – operator's responsibilities
175. (1) The operator of an aircraft to which this article applies must not cause or permit that aircraft to make a flight unless—
(a) the operator has established a scheme for the regulation of flight times for every person flying in that aircraft as a member of its crew;
(b) the scheme is approved by the CAA;
(c) either—
(i) the scheme is incorporated in the operations manual required by article 116; or
(ii) in any case where an operations manual is not required by that article, the scheme is incorporated in a document, a copy of which has been made available to every person flying in the aircraft as a member of its crew; and
(d) the operator has taken all such steps as are reasonably practicable to ensure that the provisions of the scheme will be complied with by every person flying in that aircraft as a member of its crew.
(2) The operator of an aircraft to which this article applies must not cause or permit any person to fly as a member of its crew who the operator knows or has reason to believe is suffering from or, having regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from, such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the aircraft or of its occupants.
(3) The operator of an aircraft to which this article applies must not cause or permit any person to fly in the aircraft as a member of its flight crew unless the operator possesses an accurate and up-to-date record for that person and for the 28 days immediately preceding the flight showing—
(a) all flight times, duty periods and rest periods; and
Words in art. 175(3)(a) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 33
(b) brief details of the nature of the functions performed in the course of those flight times.
(4) Subject to article 238, the record referred to in paragraph (3) must be preserved by the operator of the aircraft for at least 12 months after the flight referred to in that paragraph.

Fatigue of crew – responsibilities of crew
176. (1) A person (P) must not act as a member of the crew of an aircraft to which this article applies if P knows or suspects P is suffering from or, having regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from, such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the aircraft or of its occupants.
Word in art. 176(1) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 34(a)
Words in art. 176(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 34(b)
Words in art. 176(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 34(c)
(2) A person must not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft to which this article applies without first ensuring that the operator of the aircraft is aware of their flight times during the period of 28 days preceding the flight.

Flight times – responsibilities of flight crew
177. (1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a person must not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom if, at the beginning of the flight, the aggregate of all that person's previous flight times—
(a) during the period of 28 consecutive days expiring at the end of the day on which the flight begins exceeds 100 hours; or
(b) during the period of twelve months expiring at the end of the previous month exceeds 900 hours.
(2) This article does not apply to non-commercial flights except for flights subject to Part-NCC.
(3) A person may act as a member of the flight crew on a private or commercial operation flight where the operator does not hold a national air operator's certificate if, at the time when the flight begins, the aggregate of all the flight times of the member of the flight crew concerned since last being medically examined and found fit by a person approved by the CAA for the purpose of article 161(3) is not more than 25 hours.

Protection of air crew from cosmic radiation
178. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 178 revoked (7.8.2019) by The Air Navigation (Cosmic Radiation Protection of Air Crew and Space Crew and Consequential Amendments) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/1115), arts. 1, 28(1)(a) (with art. 3)

Fatigue of crew – responsibilities of ... Part-CAT operators
179. (1) This article applies to an operator of ... a Part-CAT aeroplane which—
(a) is registered in the United Kingdom; and
(b) has a flight crew of at least two pilots.
Words in art. 179(1)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 49(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) An operator to which this article applies must not cause or permit an aircraft to fly for the purpose of commercial air transport unless—
(a) the scheme for the regulation of flight times required under Subpart Q of Annex III to the Technical Harmonisation Regulation or Part-CAT has been approved by the CAA; and
Words in art. 179(2)(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 49(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) the operator has taken all such steps as are reasonably practicable to ensure that the provisions of the scheme will be complied with in relation to every person flying in that aeroplane as a member of its crew.
Words in art. 179 heading omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 49(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

PART 7 Air traffic services

CHAPTER 1 Air traffic services

Requirement for an air traffic control approval
180. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), a person in charge of the provision of an air traffic control service must not provide such a service for United Kingdom airspace or airspace outside the United Kingdom for which the United Kingdom has, under international arrangements, undertaken to provide air navigation services unless that person has been given and complies with the terms of an air traffic control approval granted by the CAA.
(2) The CAA must grant an air traffic control approval if it is satisfied that the applicant is competent to provide a service which is safe for use by aircraft, having regard to the applicant's organisation, staffing, equipment, maintenance and other arrangements.
(3) Paragraph (1) does not apply to any person who is required to be certified under article 7 of the Service Provision Regulation.

Duty of person in charge to be satisfied as to competence of controllers
181. The holder of an approval granted under article 180 must not permit any person to act as an air traffic controller or a student air traffic controller in the provision of the service under the approval unless—
(a) that person holds an appropriate licence; and
(b) the approval holder is satisfied that the person is competent to perform the duties of an air traffic controller or a student air traffic controller.

Manual of air traffic services
182. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person must not provide an air traffic control service at any place unless—
(a) the service is provided in accordance with the standards and procedures specified in a manual of air traffic services for that place;
(b) the manual is produced to the CAA within a reasonable time after a request for its production is made by the CAA; and
(c) such amendments or additions are made to the manual as the CAA may from time to time require.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to any person who is required to be certified under article 7 of the Service Provision Regulation.

Provision of air traffic services
183. In the case of an aerodrome (other than a Government aerodrome) for which there is equipment for providing aid for holding, aid for let-down or aid for an approach to landing by radio or radar, the person in charge of the aerodrome must—
(a) inform the CAA in advance of the periods during and times at which any such equipment is to be in operation for the purpose of providing such aid as is specified by that person; and
(b) during any period and at such times as are notified, cause an approach control service to be provided.

Making of an air traffic direction in the interests of safety
184. (1) The CAA may, in the interests of safety, direct the person in charge of an aerodrome that there must be provided for that aerodrome (other than a Government aerodrome) such an air traffic control service, a flight information service or a means of two way radio communication as the CAA considers appropriate.
(2) The CAA may, in the interests of safety, direct the holder of a licence to provide air traffic services granted under Part I of the Transport Act 2000 that there must be provided, for airspace specified in paragraph (3), such an air traffic control service, a flight information service or a means of two way radio communication as the CAA considers appropriate.
2000 c.38.
(3) The airspace referred to in paragraph (2) is United Kingdom airspace or airspace outside the United Kingdom for which the United Kingdom has, under international arrangements, undertaken to provide air navigation services, otherwise than in respect of an aerodrome.
(4) The CAA may specify in the direction the periods during which, the times at which, the manner in which and the airspace within which such service or such means must be provided.
(5) The person who has been directed must cause such a service or means to be provided in accordance with the direction.
(6) The CAA may, pending inquiry into or consideration of the case, make a provisional air traffic direction.
(7) A provisional air traffic direction—
(a) may contain any of the requirements which may be included in an air traffic direction made in accordance with paragraph (1) or (2);
(b) has effect as though it were an air traffic direction made in accordance with paragraph (1) or (2).

Making of a direction for airspace policy purposes
185. (1) After consultation with the Secretary of State the CAA may direct any person in charge of the provision of air traffic services to provide air traffic services for United Kingdom airspace or airspace outside the United Kingdom for which the United Kingdom has, under international arrangements, undertaken to provide air traffic services.
(2) A direction under paragraph (1) may be made—
(a) in the interests of ensuring the efficient use of airspace; or
(b) to require that air traffic services are provided to a standard considered appropriate by the CAA for the airspace classification.
(3) The CAA may specify in a direction under paragraph (1)—
(a) the air traffic services and the standard to which they are to be provided; and
(b) the periods during which, the times at which, the manner in which, and the airspace within which such services must be provided.
(4) The person who has been directed must cause such a service to be provided in accordance with the direction.

Use of radio call signs at aerodromes
186. The person in charge of an aerodrome provided with means of two-way radio communication must not cause or permit any call sign to be used for a purpose other than a purpose for which that call sign has been notified.

Approval of instrument flight procedures
187. (1) An instrument flight procedure within the United Kingdom must not be notified unless that procedure has been designed or approved by the CAA.
(2) The CAA must not notify or approve an instrument flight procedure unless it is satisfied that the procedure is safe for use by aircraft.
(3) Subject to paragraph (5), the CAA may approve an instrument flight procedure where an application for approval of the procedure has been made.
(4) An applicant for approval of an instrument flight procedure must supply such evidence and reports as the CAA may require.
(5) The CAA is not obliged to accept an application for the approval of an instrument flight procedure where that application is not supported by a report submitted by a person approved under paragraph (6).
(6) The CAA must grant an approval to submit reports supporting an application for approval of an instrument flight procedure if it is satisfied that the applicant is competent having regard to the applicant's organisation, staffing, equipment, knowledge, experience, competence, skill and other arrangements to design an instrument flight procedure that is safe for use by aircraft.
(7) The applicant for an approval under paragraph (6) must supply such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests and undertake such courses of training as the CAA may require.

CHAPTER 2 Licensing of air traffic controllers

Prohibition of unlicensed student air traffic controllers and air traffic controllers
188. (1) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 188(1) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 35(a)
(2) A person must not provide air traffic control services in the North Atlantic Shanwick Oceanic Control Area unless that person holds either a student air traffic controller licence or an air traffic controller licence specified in paragraph (4) which contains—
(a) an Area Control Surveillance Rating and an Oceanic Control endorsement; or
(b) an Area Control Procedural Rating and an Oceanic Control endorsement.
(3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 188(3) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 35(a)
(4) A student air traffic controller licence or air traffic controller licence referred to in paragraph (2) is a licence issued under the Air Traffic Controller Licensing Regulation by the CAA.
Words in art. 188(4) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 35(b)
Words in art. 188(4) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 50 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Period for which a student air traffic controller licence remains in force
189. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Arts. 189-197 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 36

Inclusion of national endorsements
190. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Fatigue of air traffic controllers
191. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Acting under the influence of psychoactive substances or medicines
192. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Failing exams, assessments or tests
193. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Use and approval of simulators
194. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Approval of courses, persons and simulators
195. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Certification of training organisations
196. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Certified training organisation: production of records
197. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Meaning of terms used in this Chapter
198. Terms used in this Chapter have the same meaning as equivalent terms used in the ... Air Traffic Controller Licensing Regulation.
Word in art. 198 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 37
Word in art. 198 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 51 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 3 Flight information services and licensing of flight information service officers

Prohibition of unlicensed flight information service officers
199. (1) A person must not act as a flight information service officer at any aerodrome or area control centre or hold himself or herself out, whether by use of a radio call sign or in any other way, as a person who may so act unless—
(a) they hold and comply with the terms of a flight information service officer's licence granted under this Order authorising the holder to act as such an officer at that aerodrome or area control centre; and
(b) they have identified themselves in such a manner as may be notified.
(2) In this Chapter, “acting as a flight information service officer” means giving a flight information service.

Licensing of flight information service officers
200. (1) The CAA must grant a flight information service officer licence to any person aged 18 years or more if it is satisfied that the applicant—
(a) is a fit person to hold the licence; and
(b) is qualified by having the knowledge, experience, competence, skill and physical and mental fitness to act in the capacity to which the licence relates.
(2) The applicant must supply such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests and undertake such courses of training as the CAA may require.
(3) The licence may be issued subject to such conditions as the CAA thinks fit.
(4) A licence to act as a flight information service officer—
(a) may be renewed by the CAA from time to time, when it is satisfied that the applicant is a fit person and is qualified in accordance with paragraph (1);
(b) remains in force, subject to article 253, for the period indicated in the licence or if no period is indicated, for the lifetime of the holder.
(5) A flight information service officer's licence does not authorise the giving of a flight information service at an aerodrome or area control centre unless—
(a) that aerodrome or area control centre has been specified in the licence by a person authorised by the CAA for the purpose; and
(b) the licence has been validated for that aerodrome or area control centre by a person authorised for the purpose by the CAA.
(6) If, throughout any period of 90 days, the holder of the licence has not at any time given such a service at a particular aerodrome or area control centre, the licence ceases to be valid for that aerodrome or area control centre at the end of that period until the licence has been revalidated for that aerodrome or area control centre by a person authorised by the CAA for the purpose.
(7) A licence to act as a flight information service officer is not valid unless it has been signed by the holder in ink or indelible pencil.
(8) Every holder of a flight information service officer's licence must, on such occasions as the CAA may require, submit to such examinations and tests and supply such evidence of the holder's knowledge, experience, competence and skill and undergo such courses of training as the CAA may require.

Flight information service manual
201. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person must not provide a flight information service at any aerodrome or area control centre unless—
(a) the service is provided in accordance with the standards and procedures specified in a flight information service manual for that aerodrome or area control centre;
(b) the manual is produced to the CAA within a reasonable time after a request for its production is made by the CAA; and
(c) such amendments or additions have been made to the manual as the CAA may from time to time require.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to any person who is required to be certified under Article 7 of the Service Provision Regulation.

CHAPTER 4 Certificate of competence to operate an aeronautical radio station

Prohibition of unauthorised operation of an aeronautical radio station
202. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), a person must not operate an aeronautical radio station for any purposes specified in paragraph (4), or hold themself out, whether by use of a radio call sign or in any other way, as one who may do so unless that person—
(a) held on 9th August 2012 an Air Ground Communication Service Radio Operator's Certificate of Competence or an Offshore Communication Service Radio Operator's Certificate of Competence issued by the CAA; or
(b) holds and complies with the terms of an aeronautical radio station operator certificate of competence granted under article 203 authorising the holder to provide such a service.
(2) In this article, “operate an aeronautical radio station” means activate or alter any of the external controls of any of the apparatus comprised in the station or transmit or receive messages.
(3) Nothing in this article prevents a person operating an aeronautical radio station for the purpose of avoiding immediate danger.
(4) The purposes specified for the purpose of paragraph (1) are to provide—
(a) an air/ground communications service;
(b) a service to give information to pilots of aircraft flying to or from offshore installations and to other aircraft operating in the vicinity of these aircraft; or
(c) a service to give information to pilots of aircraft flying for the purpose of the dropping of persons by parachute and to persons who have been dropped by parachute.

Aeronautical radio station operator certificate of competence
203. (1) The CAA must grant an aeronautical radio station certificate of competence if it is satisfied that the applicant—
(a) is at least 18 years of age; and
(b) is qualified by having the knowledge, experience and skill to act in the capacity to which the certificate of competence relates.
(2) The applicant must supply such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests and undertake such courses of training as the CAA may require.
(3) An aeronautical radio station certificate of competence—
(a) remains in force, subject to article 253, for the period indicated in the certificate or if no period is indicated, for the lifetime of the holder; and
(b) may be renewed by the CAA from time to time, if it is satisfied that the applicant is qualified in accordance with paragraph (1).
(4) An aeronautical radio station operator certificate of competence does not authorise the holder to provide a service at an aerodrome unless the certificate has been endorsed by the person in charge of the aeronautical radio station at the aerodrome in accordance with paragraph (5).
(5) An endorsement is in accordance with this paragraph if it certifies that the person in charge of the aeronautical radio station at the aerodrome is satisfied that the holder of the certificate is familiar with the terms and conditions of the wireless telegraphy licence issued under the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 for the aeronautical radio station and has been informed of any relevant operational information concerning the types of equipment and operating procedures for the station.
(6) Every holder of an aeronautical radio station operator certificate of competence must, on such occasions as the CAA may require, submit to such examinations and tests, supply such evidence of the holder's knowledge, experience, competence and skill and undergo such courses of training as the CAA may require.
(7) Nothing in this Order obliges the CAA to accept an application for the issue, variation or renewal of an aeronautical radio station operator certificate of competence if the application is not supported by such reports from such persons approved under article 268 as the CAA may specify, either generally or in a particular case or class of cases.

Approval of courses, persons, examinations and simulators
204. Without prejudice to any other provision of this Order the CAA may, for the purposes of this Chapter, approve—
(a) any course of training or instruction;
(b) a person to conduct such examinations, assessments or tests as it may specify; and
(c) any examinations, assessments or tests.

CHAPTER 5 Air traffic service equipment

Air traffic service equipment
205. (1) A person must not cause or permit any air traffic service equipment to be established or used in the United Kingdom otherwise than under and in accordance with an approval granted by the CAA to the person in charge of the equipment.
(2) An approval must be granted under paragraph (1) if the CAA is satisfied—
(a) as to the intended purpose of the equipment;
(b) that the equipment is fit for its intended purpose; and
(c) that the person is competent to operate the equipment.
(3) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio station at an aerodrome for which a public use licence has been granted or at a certified aerodrome must cause to be notified in relation to that aeronautical radio station the type and availability of operation of any service which is available for use by any aircraft.
Word in art. 205(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 52 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) An approval granted under paragraph (1) may include a condition requiring a person in charge of an aeronautical radio station at any other aerodrome or place to cause the information specified in paragraph (3) to be notified.
(5) An approval granted under paragraph (1) may include such other conditions as the CAA thinks fit including—
(a) a condition requiring the person in charge of the equipment to use a person approved by the CAA under paragraph (6) for the provision of particular services in connection with the equipment; and
(b) a condition requiring that the equipment be flight checked by such an approved person.
(6) The CAA may approve a person to provide particular services in connection with approved equipment.
(7) For the purpose of paragraphs (1) and (6) an approval may be granted for one or more persons or generally.
(8) This article does not apply to any air traffic service equipment of which the person solely in charge is the Secretary of State.

Air traffic service equipment records
206. (1) The person in charge of any air traffic service equipment and any associated apparatus required under paragraph (2) or (3) must—
(a) keep records for such equipment or apparatus in accordance with Part 1 of Schedule 11; and
(b) preserve such records for one year or such longer period as the CAA may in a particular case direct.
(2) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio station which is used for the provision of an air traffic control service by an air traffic control unit must provide recording apparatus in accordance with paragraph (4).
(3) The CAA may direct the person in charge of any other air traffic service equipment to provide recording apparatus in accordance with paragraph (4).
(4) Subject to paragraph (8), the person in charge of the air traffic service equipment for which recording apparatus is required to be provided under paragraph (2) or (3) must ensure that—
(a) when operated the apparatus is capable of recording and replaying the terms or content of any message or signal transmitted or received by or through that equipment; and
(b) in the case of an aeronautical radio station the apparatus is capable of recording and replaying the terms or content of any voice radio message or signal transmitted to an aircraft either alone or in common with other aircraft or received from an aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
(5) Subject to paragraph (8), the person in charge of the air traffic service equipment for which recording apparatus is required to be provided under paragraph (2) or (3) must—
(a) ensure that the apparatus is in operation at all times when the equipment is being used in connection with the provision of a service intended to facilitate the navigation of aircraft;
(b) ensure that each record made by the apparatus complies with Part 2 of Schedule 11;
(c) not cause or permit that apparatus to be used unless it is approved by the CAA; and
(d) comply with the terms of such an approval.
(6) In considering whether or not to grant an approval, the CAA may have regard to the matters specified in Part 3 of Schedule 11.
(7) An approval may be granted—
(a) in addition to any other conditions which may be imposed, subject to conditions relating to the matters to which the CAA may have had regard under paragraph (6); and
(b) for one or more persons or generally.
(8) If any apparatus provided in compliance with paragraph (2) or (3) ceases to be capable of recording the matters required by this article to be included in the records, the person required to provide that apparatus must ensure that, so far as practicable—
(a) a record is kept which complies with Part 2 of Schedule 11; and
(b) in the case of apparatus provided in compliance with paragraph (2), a summary of voice communications exchanged between the aeronautical radio station and any aircraft are recorded.
(9) If any apparatus provided in compliance with paragraph (2) or (3) becomes unserviceable, the person in charge of the air traffic service equipment must ensure that the apparatus is rendered serviceable again as soon as reasonably practicable.
(10) The person in charge of any air traffic service equipment must preserve any record made in compliance with paragraph (5) or (8) for 30 days from the date on which the terms or content of the message or signal were recorded or for such longer period as the CAA may in a particular case direct.
(11) A person required by this article to preserve any record by reason of being the person in charge of the air traffic service equipment is in this article called “the first person in charge”.
(12) If the first person in charge ceases to be in charge of the air traffic service equipment, they must continue to preserve the record until paragraph (14) is complied with.
(13) In the event of the death of the first person in charge, the duty to preserve the record falls on their personal representative.
(14) If another person becomes the person in charge of the air traffic service equipment, the first person in charge or their personal representative must deliver the record to that other person on demand, and it is the duty of that other person to deal with any such record as if they were the first person in charge.
(15) The person in charge of any air traffic service equipment must within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person produce any record required to be preserved under this article to that authorised person.
(16) This article does not apply to any air traffic service equipment of which the person solely in charge is the Secretary of State.

PART 8 Aerodromes, lighting and en-route obstacles

CHAPTER 1 Aerodromes, aeronautical lights and dangerous lights

Requirement to use national licensed, ... certified or Government aerodrome
207. (1) This article applies to any aircraft flying on a flight specified in article 208.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies must not take off or land at a place in the United Kingdom other than—
(a) a national licensed aerodrome which is licensed for the take-off and landing of such aircraft;
(b) a certified aerodrome which may under its certificate be used for the take-off and landing of such aircraft;
Word in art. 207(2)(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 53(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) a Government aerodrome notified as available for the take-off and landing of such aircraft; or
(d) a Government aerodrome where the person in charge of the aerodrome has given permission for the particular aircraft to take off or land.
(3) When taking off or landing at an aerodrome specified in paragraph (2), an aircraft to which this article applies must do so in accordance with any conditions subject to which the aerodrome may have been certified, licensed or notified, or subject to which such permission may have been given.
Word in art. 207 heading omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 53(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flights which must use licensed or Government aerodrome
208. (1) Subject to paragraph (6), article 207 applies to any aeroplane which has a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg flying on a flight—
(a) for the purpose of the commercial air transport of passengers or the public transport of passengers;
(b) for the purpose of instruction in flying given to any person for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant of a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a night qualification in a licence; or
(c) for the purpose of carrying out flying examinations for the grant of a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft rating or a night rating in a licence.
(2) Subject to paragraph (6), article 207 applies to any aeroplane which has a maximum take-off mass of not more than 5,700kg flying on a flight which is—
(a) a scheduled journey for the purpose of the commercial air transport of passengers or the public transport of passengers;
(b) for the purpose of the commercial air transport of passengers or the public transport of passengers and which begins and ends at the same aerodrome; or
(c) for the purpose of the commercial air transport of passengers or the public transport of passengers and which is at night.
(3) Subject to paragraph (6), article 207 applies to any helicopter or gyroplane flying on a flight which is a scheduled journey for the purpose of the public transport of passengers.
(4) Subject to paragraph (6), article 207 applies to any helicopter or gyroplane of which the maximum take-off mass is more than 3,175kg flying on a flight—
(a) for the purpose of instruction in flying given to any person for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant of a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a night qualification in a licence; or
(b) for the purpose of a flying test for the grant of a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a night qualification in a licence.
(5) Subject to paragraph (6), article 207 applies to any glider (other than a glider being flown under arrangements made by a flying club and carrying no person other than a member of the club) flying on a flight for the purpose of—
(a) the public transport of passengers; or
(b) instruction in flying.
(6) Article 207 does not apply to an aircraft flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.

Aerodromes – use for purposes of flying instruction and testing
209. (1) The operator of an aerodrome which is neither a national licensed aerodrome nor a certified aerodrome must not permit an aircraft flying or intended to fly for a purpose specified in paragraph (3) to take off from or land at the aerodrome unless satisfied on reasonable grounds that the aerodrome has adequate facilities for the safe conduct of such flights.
Word in art. 209(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 54 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The pilot in command of an aircraft must not take off from or land at an aerodrome which is neither a national licensed aerodrome nor a certified aerodrome on a flight for a purpose specified in paragraph (3) unless satisfied on reasonable grounds that the aerodrome has adequate facilities for the safe conduct of such flights.
Word in art. 209(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 54 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) A flight is for a purpose specified in this paragraph if it is for the purpose of—
(a) instruction in flying given to any person for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant of a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a night qualification in a licence; or
(b) carrying out flying examinations for the grant of a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a night qualification in a licence.

Helicopters flying for public transport at night
210. (1) The person in charge of any area in the United Kingdom intended to be used for the take-off or landing of helicopters at night must cause there to be in operation, whenever a helicopter flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers is taking off or landing at that area at night, such lighting as will enable the pilot of the helicopter—
(a) when landing, to identify the landing area in flight, to determine the landing direction and to make a safe approach and landing; and
(b) when taking off, to make a safe take-off.
(2) A helicopter flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers at night must not take off or land at a place to which paragraph (1) applies unless there is in operation such lighting.
(3) Paragraph (1) does not apply to an aerodrome specified in article 207(2).

Use of Government aerodromes
211. With the concurrence of the Secretary of State and subject to such conditions it deems appropriate, the CAA may notify any Government aerodrome as an aerodrome available for the take-off and landing of aircraft flying on flights for the purpose of—
(a) the commercial air transport of passengers;
(b) the public transport of passengers; or
(c) instruction in flying,
or of any classes of such aircraft.

Licensing of aerodromes
212. (1) The CAA must grant a licence (“a national aerodrome licence”) for any ... aerodrome in the United Kingdom for which the operator is not required by the Aerodromes Regulation to hold an aerodrome certificate if it is satisfied that—
(a) the applicant is competent, having regard to its previous conduct and experience, and its equipment, organisation, staffing, maintenance and other arrangements, to secure that the aerodrome and the airspace within which its visual traffic pattern is normally contained are safe for use by aircraft;
(b) the aerodrome is safe for use by aircraft, having regard in particular to the physical characteristics of the aerodrome and of its surroundings;
(c) an effective safety management system is in place; and
(d) the aerodrome manual submitted under paragraph (9) is adequate.
Word in art. 212(1) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 55(a)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 212(1) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 55(a)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) If the CAA grants a national aerodrome licence it may do so subject to such conditions it deems appropriate.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4) and article 253, a national aerodrome licence remains in force for the period specified in the licence.
(4) A national aerodrome licence expires immediately in the event that an ... aerodrome certificate is issued for the aerodrome.
Word in art. 212(4) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 55(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) A national aerodrome licence holder must supply to any person on request information concerning the terms of the licence.
(6) A national aerodrome licence holder must not contravene or cause or permit to be contravened any condition of the national aerodrome licence at any time in relation to an aircraft flying on a flight specified in article 208, but the licence does not cease to be valid by reason only of such a contravention.
(7) A national aerodrome licence holder must take all reasonable steps to secure that the aerodrome and the airspace within which its visual traffic pattern is normally contained are safe at all times for use by aircraft.
(8) On making an application for an aerodrome licence the applicant must submit to the CAA an aerodrome manual for that aerodrome.
(9) An aerodrome manual required under this article must contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable the aerodrome operating staff to perform their duties as such including, in particular, information and instructions relating to the matters specified in Schedule 12.
(10) Every national aerodrome licence holder must—
(a) supply to the CAA any amendments or additions to the aerodrome manual before or immediately after they come into effect;
(b) without prejudice to sub-paragraph (a), make such amendments or additions to the aerodrome manual as the CAA may require for the purpose of ensuring the safe operation of aircraft at the aerodrome or the safety of air navigation; and
(c) maintain the aerodrome manual and make such amendments as may be necessary for the purposes of keeping its contents up to date.
(11) Every national aerodrome licence holder must make available to each member of the aerodrome operating staff a copy of the aerodrome manual, or a copy of every part of the aerodrome manual which is relevant to their duties and ensure that each such copy is kept up to date.
(12) Every national aerodrome licence holder must take all reasonable steps to secure that all members of the aerodrome operating staff—
(a) are aware of the contents of every part of the aerodrome manual which is relevant to their duties; and
(b) undertake their duties in conformity with the relevant provisions of the manual.
(13) In this article—
“aerodrome operating staff” means all persons (whether or not the national aerodrome licence holder and whether or not employed by the national aerodrome licence holder) whose duties—
(a) are concerned with ensuring that the aerodrome and airspace within which its visual traffic pattern is normally contained are safe for use by aircraft; or
(b) require them to have access to the aerodrome manoeuvring area or apron;
“national aerodrome licence holder” means a person who has been granted a licence under paragraph (1);
“visual traffic pattern” means—
(a) the aerodrome traffic zone of the aerodrome; or
(b) in the case of an aerodrome which is not notified for the purposes of rule 11 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015, the airspace which would comprise the aerodrome traffic zone of the aerodrome if it were so notified.

Issue of aerodrome safety directives for national licensed aerodromes
213. (1) The CAA may issue a directive (“an aerodrome safety directive”) to a national aerodrome licence holder if it has determined the existence of an unsafe condition at a national licensed aerodrome which requires immediate action.
(2) An aerodrome safety directive must contain, as a minimum, the following information—
(a) details of the unsafe condition;
(b) the actions required and the rationale for requiring them; and
(c) the time limit for compliance with the required actions.

Public use licence
214. (1) If the applicant for a national aerodrome licence requests or if the CAA considers that an aerodrome should be available for the take-off or landing of aircraft to all persons on equal terms and conditions, the CAA may grant a national aerodrome licence with a public use condition in addition to any other conditions.
(2) A public use condition is a condition that the aerodrome is to be available to all persons on equal terms and conditions at all times when it is available for the take-off or landing of aircraft.
(3) A national aerodrome licence with a public use condition is in this Order referred to as “a public use licence”.
(4) The holder of a public use licence must cause to be notified the times during which the aerodrome will be available for the take-off or landing of aircraft flying on flights for the purpose of the commercial air transport of passengers, the public transport of passengers or instruction in flying.

Charges at aerodromes with a public use licence
215. The holder of a public use licence must, when required by the Secretary of State, supply to the Secretary of State such information as he may require about the charges established by the licensee for the use of the aerodrome or of any facilities provided at the aerodrome for the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.

Use of aerodromes by aircraft of Contracting States and of the Commonwealth
216. The person in charge of any aerodrome in the United Kingdom which is open to public use by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must cause the aerodrome and all of its air navigation facilities to be available for use by aircraft registered in other Contracting States or in any part of the Commonwealth on the same terms and conditions as for use by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom.

Powers of aerodrome firefighters in an emergency
217. (1) A member of the Rescue and Fire Fighting Service at a national licensed aerodrome or a certified aerodrome may do anything on the aerodrome the member reasonably believes to be necessary—
(a) if the member reasonably believes a fire to have broken out or to be about to break out, for the purpose of extinguishing or preventing the fire or protecting life or property;
(b) if the member reasonably believes an aircraft accident or incident to have occurred, for the purpose of rescuing people or protecting them from serious harm; or
(c) for the purpose of preventing or limiting damage to property resulting from any action taken as mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) or (b).
Word in art. 217 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 56 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) In particular, a member of the Rescue and Fire Fighting Service at a national licensed aerodrome or a certified aerodrome, when acting in accordance with paragraph (1), may on the aerodrome—
(a) enter an aircraft, by force if necessary, without the consent of the owner or operator;
(b) restrict the access of persons to an aircraft, premises or a place.
(3) A person who without reasonable excuse obstructs or interferes with a member of the Rescue and Fire Fighting Service at a national licensed aerodrome or a certified aerodrome taking action authorised under this article commits an offence.

Noise and vibration caused by aircraft on aerodromes
218. (1) The Secretary of State may prescribe the conditions under which noise and vibration may be caused by aircraft (including military aircraft) on Government aerodromes, national licensed aerodromes, ...certified aerodromes or on aerodromes at which the manufacture, repair or maintenance of aircraft is carried out by persons carrying on business as manufacturers or repairers of aircraft.
Word in art. 218(1) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 57 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) Section 77(2) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 applies to any aerodrome in relation to which the Secretary of State has prescribed conditions in accordance with paragraph (1).

Customs and Excise aerodromes
219. (1) The Secretary of State may, with the concurrence of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs and subject to such conditions as they may think fit, by order designate any aerodrome to be a place for the landing or departure of aircraft for the purpose of the enactments for the time being in force relating to customs and excise.
(2) The Secretary of State may, with the concurrence of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs, by order revoke any designation so made.

Aviation fuel at aerodromes
220. (1) Subject to paragraph (3), an aviation fuel installation manager must not cause or permit any fuel to be delivered to the installation unless satisfied that—
(a) the installation is capable of storing and dispensing the fuel so as not to render it unfit for use in aircraft;
(b) the installation is marked in a manner appropriate to the grade of fuel stored or if different grades are stored in different parts each part is so marked; and
(c) in the case of delivery from a vehicle or vessel, the fuel has been sampled and is of a grade appropriate to that installation and is fit for use in aircraft.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), an aviation fuel installation manager must not cause or permit any fuel to be dispensed from the installation to an aircraft unless satisfied as the result of sampling that the fuel is fit for use in aircraft.
(3) Paragraph (1) does not apply to fuel which has been removed from an aircraft and is intended for use in another aircraft operated by the same operator as the aircraft from which it has been removed.
(4) The aviation fuel installation manager must keep a written record for each installation of which they have the management, which record must include detailed information about—
(a) the grade and quantity of aviation fuel delivered and the date of delivery;
(b) all samples taken of the aviation fuel and of the results of tests of those samples; and
(c) the maintenance and cleaning of the installation.
(5) The aviation fuel installation manager must—
(a) preserve the written record required under paragraph (4) for 12 months or such longer period as the CAA may in a particular case direct; and
(b) within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person, produce such record to that person.
(6) A person must not cause or permit any aviation fuel to be dispensed for use in an aircraft if the person knows or has reason to believe that the aviation fuel is not fit for use in aircraft.
(7) If it appears to the CAA or an authorised person that any aviation fuel is intended or likely to be delivered in contravention of any provision of this article, the CAA or that authorised person may direct the aviation fuel installation manager not to permit aviation fuel to be dispensed from that installation until the direction has been revoked by the CAA or by an authorised person.
(8) In this article—
“aviation fuel” means fuel intended for use in aircraft;
“aviation fuel installation” means any apparatus or container, including a vehicle, designed, manufactured or adapted for the storage of aviation fuel or for the delivery of such fuel to an aircraft;
“aviation fuel installation manager” means a person who has the management of any aviation fuel installation on an aerodrome in the United Kingdom.

CHAPTER 2 Lights and lighting

Aeronautical lights
221. (1) Except with the permission of the CAA and in accordance with any conditions subject to which the permission may be granted, a person must not establish, maintain or alter the character of—
(a) an aeronautical beacon within the United Kingdom; or
(b) any aeronautical ground light (other than an aeronautical beacon) at a national licensed aerodrome, or which forms part of the lighting system for use by aircraft taking off from or landing at such an aerodrome.
(2) In the case of an aeronautical beacon which is or may be visible from the waters within an area of a general lighthouse authority, the CAA must not give its permission for the purpose of this article except with the consent of that authority.
(3) A person must not intentionally or negligently damage or interfere with any aeronautical ground light established by or with the permission of the CAA.

Lighting of en-route obstacles
222. (1) The person in charge of an en-route obstacle must ensure that it is fitted with medium intensity steady red lights positioned as close as possible to the top of the obstacle and at intermediate levels spaced so far as practicable equally between the top lights and ground level with an interval of not more than 52 metres.
(2) The person in charge of an en-route obstacle must, subject to paragraph (3), ensure that by night the lights required to be fitted by this article are displayed.
(3) In the event of the failure of any light which is required by this article to be displayed by night the person in charge must repair or replace the light as soon as reasonably practicable.
(4) At each level on the obstacle where lights are required to be fitted, sufficient lights must be fitted and arranged so as to show when displayed in all directions.
(5) In any particular case the CAA may direct that an en-route obstacle must be fitted with and must display such additional lights in such positions and at such times as it may specify.
(6) A permission may be granted for the purposes of this article for a particular case or class of cases or generally.
(7) This article does not apply to any en-route obstacle for which the CAA has granted a permission to the person in charge permitting that person not to fit and display lights in accordance with this article.
(8) In this article, an “en-route obstacle” means any building, structure or erection, the height of which is 150 metres or more above ground level, but it does not include a building, structure or erection—
(a) which is in the vicinity of a national licensed aerodrome or a certificated aerodrome; and
Word in art. 222(8)(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 58 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) to which section 47 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (warning of presence of obstructions near licensed aerodromes) applies.

Lighting of wind turbine generators in United Kingdom territorial waters
223. (1) Subject to paragraph (10), this article applies to any wind turbine generator—
(a) the height of which is 60 metres or more above the level of the sea at the highest astronomical tide; and
(b) which is situated in waters within or adjacent to the United Kingdom up to the seaward limits of the territorial sea.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3) the person in charge of a wind turbine generator must ensure that it is fitted with at least one medium intensity steady red light positioned as close as reasonably practicable to the top of the fixed structure.
(3) If four or more wind turbine generators are located together in the same group, with the permission of the CAA only those on the periphery of the group need be fitted with a light in accordance with paragraph (2).
(4) Subject to paragraph (5), the light or lights required by paragraph (2) must be so fitted as to show when displayed in all directions without interruption.
(5) When displayed—
(a) the angle of the plane of the beam of peak intensity emitted by the light must be elevated to between three and four degrees above the horizontal plane;
(b) not more than 45% or less than 20% of the minimum peak intensity specified for a light of this type is to be visible at the horizontal plane;
(c) not more than 10% of the minimum peak intensity specified for a light of this type is to be visible at a depression of 1.5 degrees or more below the horizontal plane.
(6) Subject to paragraph (7), the person in charge of a wind turbine generator must ensure that by night, any light required to be fitted by this article is displayed.
(7) In the event of the failure of any light which is required by this article to be displayed by night the person in charge of a wind turbine generator must repair or replace the light as soon as reasonably practicable.
(8) If visibility in all directions from every wind turbine generator in a group is more than 5km the light intensity for any light required by this article to be fitted to any generator in the group and displayed may be reduced to not less than 10% of the minimum peak intensity specified for a light of this type.
(9) In any particular case the CAA may direct that a wind turbine generator must be fitted with and display such additional lights in such positions and at such times as it may specify.
(10) This article does not apply to any wind turbine generator for which the CAA has granted a permission to the person in charge permitting that person not to fit and display lights in accordance with this article.
(11) A permission may be granted for the purposes of this article for a particular case or class of cases or generally.
(12) In this article—
(a) “wind turbine generator” is a generating station which is wholly or mainly driven by wind;
(b) the height of a wind turbine generator is the height of the fixed structure or if greater the maximum vertical extent of any blade attached to that structure; and
(c) a wind turbine generator is in the same group as another wind turbine generator if the same person is in charge of both and—
(i) it is within 2km of that other wind turbine generator; or
(ii) it is within 2km of a wind turbine generator which is in the same group as that other wind turbine generator.

Lights liable to endanger
224. (1) A person must not exhibit in the United Kingdom any light which—
(a) by reason of its glare is liable to endanger aircraft taking off from or landing at an aerodrome; or
(b) by reason of its liability to be mistaken for an aeronautical ground light is liable to endanger aircraft.
(2) If any light which appears to the CAA to be a light described in paragraph (1) is exhibited, the CAA may direct the person who is the occupier of the place where the light is exhibited or who has charge of the light, to take such steps within a reasonable time as are specified in the direction—
(a) to extinguish or screen the light; and
(b) to prevent in the future the exhibition of any other light which may similarly endanger aircraft.
(3) The direction may be served either personally or by post, or by affixing it in some conspicuous place near to the light to which it relates.
(4) In the case of a light which is or may be visible from any waters within the area of a general lighthouse authority, the power of the CAA under this article must not be exercised except with the consent of that authority.

Lights which dazzle or distract
225. A person must not in the United Kingdom direct or shine any light at any aircraft in flight so as to dazzle or distract the pilot of the aircraft.

CHAPTER 3 Notifications relating to en-route obstacles

Notifications relating to en-route obstacles
225A. (1) In respect of an existing en-route obstacle, the relevant person must, as soon as reasonably practicable, notify the CAA in writing of—
(a) the obstacle’s type;
(b) the obstacle’s position, represented by geographical coordinates in degrees, minutes and seconds;
(c) the obstacle’s elevation above mean sea level and height above ground level to the nearest metre or foot; and
(d) the type and colour of any obstacle lighting.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply where the CAA has already been notified.
(3) In respect of planned works which have a confirmed commencement date, the relevant person must notify the CAA in writing of the information specified in paragraph (4) in accordance with paragraph (5).
(4) The information referred to in paragraph (3) is—
(a) the obstacle’s type, or planned type;
(b) the obstacle’s position, represented by geographical coordinates in degrees, minutes and seconds;
(c) the obstacle’s elevation above mean sea level and height above ground level to the nearest metre or foot prior to and upon completion of the necessary works;
(d) the type and colour of any lighting to be fitted to it, or to be removed from it; and
(e) the scheduled dates of commencement and completion of the works.
(5) Notice under paragraph (3) must be given—
(a) at least 8 weeks before the commencement of the planned works; or
(b) as soon as reasonably practicable where there is insufficient time to give 8 weeks’ notice or there is an urgent need to commence the planned works.
(6) The relevant person must notify the CAA in writing of the completion of the planned works and whether there has been any change to the information provided under paragraph (4) no later than 30 days after the completion of the works.
(7) In this article—
“en-route obstacle” means any building, structure or erection, the height of which is 100 metres or more above ground level;
“planned works” means works to—
(a) erect a new en-route obstacle;
(b) increase the height of an existing en-route obstacle;
(c) decrease the height of an existing en-route obstacle;
(d) develop an existing building, structure or erection into an en-route obstacle;
(e) remove an existing en-route obstacle;
(f) fit obstacle lighting to an en-route obstacle; or
(g) remove previously fitted obstacle lighting from an en-route obstacle;
“relevant person” means—
(a) in relation to paragraph (1), the person in charge of an existing en-route obstacle;
(b) in relation to paragraphs (3) and (6), the person in charge of the planned works which would, on completion of those works, result in the creation, modification or removal of an en-route obstacle.
Pt. 8 Ch. 3 inserted (6.9.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(2), 8
Pt. 8 heading substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 7

PART 9 Documents and records

Aircraft continuing airworthiness record system for non-Part-21 aircraft
226. (1) In addition to any other log books required to be kept by or under this Order, aircraft continuing airworthiness records must be kept for non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, comprising of—
(a) an aircraft log book;
(b) a separate engine log book or engine module log cards for each engine fitted in the aircraft; and
(c) a separate propeller log book for each variable pitch propeller fitted to the aircraft; and
(d) log cards for any service life limited component, as appropriate.
Word in art. 226(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 59(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The continuing airworthiness records must include the information specified in Schedule 7.
(3) Each entry in the continuing airworthiness records—
(a) must be made—
(i) in the case of a certificate of release to service, as soon as practicable, but in no case more than 30 days after the date on which the maintenance was completed;
(ii) in all other cases, as soon as practicable after the occurrence to which it relates, but in no event more than 7 days after the expiration of the national airworthiness review certificate in force for the aircraft at the time of the occurrence;
(b) must be made on each occasion that any overhaul, repair, replacement, modification, maintenance or inspection is undertaken on the engine or propeller;
(c) must be clear and accurate; and
(d) where it is necessary to correct an earlier entry in the aircraft continuing airworthiness records, must be made in a manner that clearly shows the original entry.
(4) Any document which is incorporated by reference in the continuing airworthiness records is deemed, for the purposes of this Order, to be part of the continuing airworthiness records.
(5) It is the duty of the operator of every aircraft for which continuing airworthiness records are required to be kept to—
(a) keep them or cause them to be kept in accordance with this article; and
(b) present them to the CAA upon request.
(6) Subject to article 238, continuing airworthiness records must be preserved by the operator of the aircraft in accordance with paragraph 4 of Schedule 7.
(7) The operator must ensure that—
(a) when an aircraft is permanently transferred from one operator to another, the continuing airworthiness records and, if applicable, operator's technical log are also transferred;
(b) when the continuing airworthiness management tasks are contracted to a continuing airworthiness management organisation, the continuing airworthiness records are transferred to the organisation.
(8) Where a transfer of the continuing airworthiness records and, if applicable, operator's technical log happens in accordance with paragraph (7), the time periods for retention of records or log in paragraph 4 of Schedule 7 apply to the new operator or continuing airworthiness management organisation.
Word in art. 226 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 59(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Technical log for non-Part-21 aircraft
227. (1) This article applies to each non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom for which a certificate of airworthiness is in force and which is a commercial air transport aircraft, public transport aircraft or commercial operation aircraft.
Word in art. 227(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 60(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a technical log containing the information in paragraph 5 of Schedule 7 must be kept for every aircraft to which this article applies.
(3) In the case of an aircraft which has a maximum total weight authorised of 2,730kg or less and which is not operated by the holder of a national air operator's certificate, a record approved by the CAA (in this article called “an approved record”) may be kept instead of a technical log.
(4) Subject to paragraph (5), at the end of every flight the pilot in command must enter in the technical log or the approved record—
(a) the times when the aircraft took off and landed;
(b) information about any defect which is known to the pilot in command and which affects the airworthiness or safe operation of the aircraft, or if no such defect is known to the pilot in command, an entry to that effect; and
(c) such other information about the airworthiness or operation of the aircraft as the CAA may require,
and must sign and date the entries.
(5) Subject to paragraph (6), if there are two or more consecutive flights, each of which begins and ends—
(a) within the same period of 24 hours;
(b) at the same aerodrome, except where each such flight is for the purpose of dropping or projecting any material for agricultural, public health or similar purposes; and
(c) with the same person as pilot in command of the aircraft,
the pilot in command may make the entries specified in paragraph (4) at the end of the last of such consecutive flights.
(6) Paragraph (5) does not apply if the pilot in command becomes aware of a defect during an earlier flight.
(7) When any defect which has been entered in a technical log or approved record is rectified the person issuing a certificate of release to service issued under this Order or in respect of that defect must enter the certificate in the technical log or approved record in such a position as to be readily identifiable with the defect to which it relates.
(8) Subject to paragraph (9) and Schedule 10, the technical log or approved record—
(a) must be carried in the aircraft when article 229 so requires; and
(b) a copy of the entries required by this article must be kept on the ground.
(9) In the case of an aircraft with a maximum take-off mass of not more than 2,730kg and which is not a commercial air transport aircraft, a public transport aircraft or a non-military state aircraft, if it is not reasonably practicable for the copy of the technical log or approved record to be kept on the ground it may be carried in the aircraft.
(10) Subject to article 238, a technical log or approved record required by this article must be preserved by the operator of the aircraft to which it relates for at least two years after the aircraft has been destroyed or has been permanently withdrawn from use, or for such shorter period as the CAA may permit in a particular case.
Word in art. 227 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 60(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Personal flying log
228. (1) A personal flying log must be kept by—
(a) every member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom; and
(b) every person who engages in flying for the purpose of qualifying for the—
(i) grant of a flight crew licence under this Order;
(ii) grant of a flight crew licence issued by the CAA under Part-FCL;
(iii) grant, renewal or revalidation of a rating or certificate under this Order; or
(iv) grant, renewal or revalidation of a certificate under Part-FCL.
(2) The information to be recorded is—
(a) the name and address of the holder of the log;
(b) detailed information about the holder's licence (if any) to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft; and
(c) the name and address of the holder's employer (if any).
(3) Detailed information about each flight during which the holder of the log acted either—
(a) as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft; or
(b) for the purpose of qualifying for the grant, renewal or revalidation of a licence, rating or certificate under this Order or Part-FCL,
must be recorded in the log as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of each flight.
(4) The information recorded in accordance with paragraph (3) must include—
(a) the date, the places at which the holder of the log embarked on and disembarked from the aircraft and the time spent during the course of a flight when the holder was acting in either capacity;
(b) the type and registration marks of the aircraft;
(c) the capacity in which the holder acted in flight;
(d) information about any special conditions under which the flight was conducted, including night flying and instrument flying; and
(e) information about any test or examination undertaken by the holder of the log whilst in flight.
(5) Information about any test or examination undertaken whilst in a flight simulator must be recorded in the log, including—
(a) the date of the test or examination;
(b) the type of simulator;
(c) the capacity in which the holder acted; and
(d) the nature of the test or examination.
(6) For the purposes of this article, a helicopter is in flight from the moment the helicopter's rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter comes to rest at the end of the flight and the rotor blades are stopped.

Documents to be carried
229. (1) An aircraft must not fly unless it carries the documents which it is required to carry under the law of the country in which it is registered.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (4), an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must, when in flight, carry documents in accordance with Schedule 10.
(3) Paragraph (2) does not apply to an aircraft flying in accordance with the ... Air Operations Regulation.
Art. 229(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 38(a)
Word in art. 229(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 61 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 229(4) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 38(b)

Keeping and production of records of exposure to cosmic radiation
230. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 230 revoked (7.8.2019) by The Air Navigation (Cosmic Radiation Protection of Air Crew and Space Crew and Consequential Amendments) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/1115), arts. 1, 28(1)(b) (with arts. 3, 28(3))

Use of flight recording systems
231. (1) On a flight on which a flight data recorder, a cockpit voice recorder or a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder is required by paragraph 4(4) or (5) of Part 1 of Schedule 6 to be carried in an aeroplane, the recorder must always be in use from the beginning of the take-off run to the end of the landing run.
Words in art. 231(1) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 39(a)
(2) On any flight on which a cockpit voice recorder, a flight data recorder or a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder is required by paragraph 4(13) of Part 1 of Schedule 6 to be carried in a helicopter, the recorder must always be in use from the time the rotors first turn for the purpose of taking off until the rotors are next stopped.
Word in art. 231(2) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 39(b)

Preservation of records of aeroplane flight data recorder
232. (1) Subject to article 238, the operator of an aeroplane must at all times—
(a) preserve the last 25 hours of recording made by any flight data recorder which must by or under this Order be carried in an aeroplane; and
(b) preserve a record of at least one representative flight made within the last 12 months.
(2) The representative flight referred to in paragraph (1)(b) must include a take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach to landing and landing.
(3) The record required by paragraph (1)(b) must include a means of identifying the flight to which it relates.
(4) The operator of an aeroplane must preserve the records required by this article for such period as the CAA may direct.

Preservation of records of helicopter flight data recorder
233. (1) This article applies to a helicopter required to carry a flight data recorder specified in paragraph (1) or (2) of Scale SS of paragraph 5 of Part 1 of Schedule 6.
(2) Subject to article 238, the operator of such a helicopter must at all times preserve the last eight hours of recording made by the flight data recorder.

Preservation of records of helicopter cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder
234. (1) This article applies to any helicopter required to carry a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder specified in paragraph (3) of Scale SS of paragraph 5 of Part 1 of Schedule 6.
(2) Subject to article 238, the operator of a helicopter must at all times preserve either the last eight hours of recording made by the combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder or the recording specified in paragraph (3).
(3) The recording referred to in paragraph (2) is—
(a) the last five hours of recording or the duration of the last flight, whichever is the greater; and
(b) an additional period of recording in accordance with paragraph (4) and which together with the period preserved under sub-paragraph (a) amounts to eight hours.
(4) The additional period of recording referred to in paragraph (3) is—
(a) the period immediately preceding the period preserved under paragraph (3)(a); or
(b) such period or periods as the CAA may permit in any particular case or class of cases or generally.
(5) The additional recording specified in paragraph (4) must be retained in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Production of documents and records
235. (1) The pilot in command of an aircraft must, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person, cause to be produced to that person—
(a) the certificates of registration and airworthiness in force for the aircraft;
(b) the licences of its flight crew; and
(c) any other documents which the aircraft is required by article 229 or a Safety Regulation to carry when in flight.
Words in art. 235(1)(c) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 62(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The operator of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person, cause to be produced to that person any of the documents or records specified in paragraph (3) which have been requested by that person.
(3) The documents and records referred to in paragraph (2) are—
(a) the documents referred to in Schedule 10 as Documents A, B and G;
(b) the aircraft log book, engine log books and variable pitch propeller log books required under this Order to be kept;
(c) the weight schedule, if any, required to be preserved under article 43(4);
(d) in the case of a public transport aircraft or commercial operation aircraft, the documents referred to in Schedule 10 as Documents D, E, F and H;
(e) the records of flight times, duty periods and rest periods which the operator is required by article 175(4) to preserve, and such other documents and information in the possession or control of the operator, as the authorised person may require for the purpose of determining whether those records are complete and accurate;
(f) any operations manuals required to be made available under article 116(4)(a); and
(g) the record made by any flight data recorder required to be carried by or under this Order.
(4) The holder of a licence granted or rendered valid under this Order or by the CAA under the ... Aircrew Regulation or of a medical certificate required under article 160 or article 162 or of a medical declaration under article 163 must, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person, cause the licence, including any certificate of validation issued under article 169, the medical certificate or the medical declaration, to be produced to that person.
Word in art. 235(4) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 62(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) During the period of two years beginning with the date of the last entry in it every person required by article 228 to keep a personal flying log must cause it to be produced to an authorised person within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by that person.

Production of air traffic service equipment documents and records
236. The holder of an approval under article 205 or 206 must, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person, cause to be produced to that person any documents and records relating to any air traffic service equipment used or intended to be used in connection with the provision of a service to an aircraft.

Power to inspect and copy documents and records
237. An authorised person has the power to inspect and copy any certificate, licence, log, declaration, document or record which the authorised person has the power under this Order, under any regulations made under this Order, ... or under a Safety Regulation to require to be produced.
Word in art. 237 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 63(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 237 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 63(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Preservation of documents, etc
238. (1) A person who is required by this Order to preserve any document or record by reason of being the operator of an aircraft is in this article called “the first operator”.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), if the first operator ceases to be the operator of an aircraft, they must continue to preserve the document or record until paragraphs (4), (5) and (6) have been complied with, as appropriate.
Art. 238(2) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 40
(3) In the event of the death of the first operator the duty to preserve the document or record falls on the first operator's personal representative.
(4) If another person becomes the operator of the aircraft, the first operator or their personal representative must deliver to that other person on demand—
(a) the national airworthiness review certificate and release to service;
(b) the log books;
(c) the weight schedule; and
(d) any record made by a flight data recorder and preserved in accordance with article 233(2) and 234(2),
which are in force or required to be preserved for that aircraft.
(5) If an engine or variable pitch propeller is removed from an aircraft and installed in another aircraft operated by another person, the first operator of the aircraft or their personal representative must deliver to that other person on demand the log book relating to that engine or propeller.
(6) If any person for whom a record has been kept by the first operator in accordance with article 175(4) becomes a member of the flight crew of a public transport aircraft registered in the United Kingdom and operated by another person, the first operator or their personal representative must deliver those records to that other person on demand.
(7) It is the duty of the other person referred to in paragraphs (4), (5) and (6) to deal with the documents or records delivered under those provisions as if they were the first operator.

PART 10 Prohibited behaviour, directives, rules, powers and penalties

CHAPTER 1 Prohibited behaviour

Power to prohibit or restrict flying
239. (1) If the Secretary of State decides it is necessary in the public interest to restrict or prohibit flying by reason of—
(a) the intended gathering or movement of a large number of persons;
(b) the intended holding of an aircraft race or contest or of a flying display; or
(c) national defence or any other reason affecting the public interest,
the Secretary of State may make regulations prohibiting, restricting or imposing conditions on flights by aircraft specified in paragraph (2) flying in the circumstances specified in paragraph (2).
(2) The aircraft and circumstances are—
(a) aircraft, whether or not they are registered in the United Kingdom, in any airspace over the United Kingdom or in the neighbourhood of an offshore installation; and
(b) aircraft which are registered in the United Kingdom, in any other airspace, being airspace for which the United Kingdom has, under international arrangements, undertaken to provide navigation services for aircraft.
(3) Regulations made under this article may apply either generally or in relation to any individual aircraft or class of aircraft.
Words in art. 239(3) inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 6
(4) It is an offence to contravene, permit the contravention of or fail to comply with any regulations made under this article.
(5) If the pilot in command of an aircraft becomes aware that the aircraft is flying in contravention of any regulations which have been made for any reason referred to in paragraph (1)(c) the pilot in command must, unless otherwise instructed under paragraph (6), cause the aircraft to leave the area to which the regulations relate by flying to the least possible extent over such area and the aircraft must not begin to descend while over such an area.
(6) The pilot in command of an aircraft flying either within an area for which regulations have been made for any reason referred to in paragraph (1)(c) or within airspace notified as a Danger Area must immediately comply with instructions given by radio by the appropriate air traffic control unit or by, or on behalf of, the person responsible for safety within the relevant airspace.

Endangering safety of an aircraft
240. A person must not recklessly or negligently act in a manner likely to endanger an aircraft, or any person in an aircraft.

Endangering safety of any person or property
241. A person must not recklessly or negligently cause or permit an aircraft to endanger any person or property.

Drunkenness in aircraft
242. (1) A person must not enter any aircraft when drunk, or be drunk in any aircraft.
(2) A person must not, when acting as a member of the crew of any aircraft or being carried in any aircraft for the purpose of acting as a member of the crew, be under the influence of drink or a drug to such an extent as to impair their capacity so to act.

Smoking in aircraft
243. (1) In aircraft to which this paragraph applies, notices indicating when smoking is prohibited must be exhibited so as to be visible from each passenger seat.
(2) Paragraph (1) applies to any aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, other than a Part-CAT aircraft.
(3) A person must not smoke in any compartment of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom at a time when smoking is prohibited in that compartment by a notice to that effect exhibited by or on behalf of the pilot in command of the aircraft.

Authority of pilot in command of an aircraft
244. Every person in an aircraft must obey all lawful commands which the pilot in command of that aircraft may give for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried in the aircraft, or the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.

Acting in a disruptive manner
245. A person must not while in an aircraft—
(a) use any threatening, abusive or insulting words towards a member of the crew of the aircraft;
(b) behave in a threatening, abusive, insulting or disorderly manner towards a member of the crew of the aircraft; or
(c) intentionally interfere with the performance by a member of the crew of the aircraft of the crew member's duties.

Stowaways
246. A person must not secrete themself for the purpose of being carried in an aircraft without the consent of either the operator or the pilot in command or of any other person entitled to give consent to being carried in the aircraft.

Flights over any foreign country
247. (1) The operator and the pilot in command of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom (or, if the operator's principal place of business or permanent residence is in the United Kingdom, any other aircraft) which is being flown over any foreign country, must not allow that aircraft to be used for a purpose which is prejudicial to the security, public order or public health of, or to the safety of air navigation in relation to, that country.
(2) A person does not contravene paragraph (1) if that person neither knew nor suspected that the aircraft was being or was to be used for a purpose referred to in that paragraph.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), the operator and the pilot in command of an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom (or, if the operator's principal place of business or permanent residence is in the United Kingdom, any other aircraft) which is being flown over any foreign country must comply with any directions given by the appropriate aeronautical authorities of that country whenever—
(a) the flight has not been duly authorised; or
(b) there are reasonable grounds for the appropriate aeronautical authorities to believe that the aircraft is being or will be used for a purpose which is prejudicial to the security, public order or public health of, or to the safety of air navigation in relation to, that country.
(4) A direction under paragraph (3) need not be complied with if to do so would endanger the lives of persons on board or the safety of the aircraft.
(5) A person does not contravene paragraph (3) if that person neither knew nor suspected that directions were being given by the appropriate aeronautical authorities.
(6) The requirement in paragraph (3) is without prejudice to any other requirement to comply with directions of an aeronautical authority.
(7) In this article, “appropriate aeronautical authorities” includes any person, whether a member of a country's military or civil authorities, authorised under the law of the foreign country to issue directions to aircraft flying over that country.

CHAPTER 2 Directives and rules of the air

Operational directives
248. (1) The CAA may direct an aircraft operator by means of an operational directive that an operation is prohibited, or must be limited or is subject to specified conditions, in the interests of safe operations.
(2) An operational directive must state—
(a) the reason for its issue;
(b) its applicability and duration; and
(c) the action required by the operator.
(3) An operational directive may be made in respect of one or more operators or one or more classes of operator.
(4) An operational directive may be revoked by the CAA.
(5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 248(5) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 64(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(6) An operational directive which applies to a Part-CAT operator in relation to a commercial air transport operation—
(a) must be made subject to and in accordance with article 70(1) of the Basic ... Regulation; ...
Words in art. 248(6)(a) substituted (13.4.2022) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2022 (S.I. 2022/321), arts. 1(1), 6
Word in art. 248(6)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 64(b)(i)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in art. 248(6)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 64(b)(i)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 248(6)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 64(b)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Rules of the Air
249. (1) The Secretary of State may make regulations (in this article called the “Rules of the Air”) prescribing—
(a) the manner in which aircraft may move or fly including in particular provision for requiring aircraft to give way to military aircraft;
(b) the lights and other signals to be shown or made by aircraft or persons;
(c) the lighting and marking of aerodromes; and
(d) any other provisions for securing the safety of aircraft in flight and in movement and the safety of persons and property on the surface.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (4), it is an offence to contravene, to permit the contravention of, or to fail to comply with, the Rules of the Air.
(3) It is lawful for the Rules of the Air, or for any obligation in SERA the breach of which would otherwise be an offence under this Order, to be departed from to the extent necessary—
(a) for avoiding immediate danger;
(b) for complying with the law of any country other than the United Kingdom within which the aircraft then is; or
(c) for complying with MAA01: Military Aviation Authority Regulatory Policy (Issue 4, published on 17th December 2014 and updated on 1st April 2015) and Regulatory Articles 2000 Series Flying Regulations (published on 11th November 2014 and updated on 21st April 2015) issued by the Secretary of State.
(4) It is lawful for the Rules of the Air, or for any obligation in SERA the breach of which would otherwise be an offence under this Order, to be departed from by an aircraft of which the pilot in command is acting as such in the course of the pilot in command's duty as a member of any of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces.
(5) If any departure from the Rules of the Air, or from any obligation in SERA the breach of which would otherwise be an offence under this Order, is made for the purpose of avoiding immediate danger, the pilot in command of the aircraft must cause written detailed information about the departure, and of the circumstances giving rise to it, to be given without delay, and in any event within 10 days of the departure, to the competent authority of the country in whose territory the departure was made or if the departure was made over the high seas, to the CAA.
(6) Nothing in the Rules of the Air exonerates any person from the consequences of any neglect in the use of lights or signals or of the neglect of any precautions required by ordinary aviation practice or by the special circumstances of the case.

CHAPTER 3 Foreign registered aircraft

Restriction on carriage, where valuable consideration is given or promised, in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
250. (1) Unless paragraph (2) or (6) applies, an aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom must not take on board or discharge any passengers or cargo in the United Kingdom where valuable consideration is given or promised for the carriage of such persons or cargo.
(1A) The Secretary of State may decide, on the basis of the criteria in the Annex to Regulation 2111/2005, that if an air operator who has not been granted permission under paragraph (2) were to apply for it, that operator should not—
(a) be granted such permission;
(b) be granted such permission in relation to specified aircraft; or
(c) be granted such permission unless such permission is subject to specified conditions.
Art. 250(1A)-(1D) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 65(2) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(1B) The Secretary of State may at any time, after reconsideration of the criteria in the Annex to Regulation 2111/2005, decide to revoke or amend a decision under paragraph (1A).
(1C) Where the Secretary of State makes a decision under paragraphs (1A) or (1B), the Secretary of State must notify both the CAA and the air operator concerned.
(1D) The CAA must not determine an application for permission where the Secretary of State has notified the CAA pursuant to paragraph (1C).
(2) This paragraph applies if—
(a) the operator or charterer of the aircraft or the Government of the country in which the aircraft is registered has been granted permission to take on board or discharge any passengers or cargo in the circumstances described in paragraph (1) by—
(i) the Secretary of State; or
(ii) the CAA; and
(b) any conditions, to which such permission may be subject, are satisfied.
(3) Where the Secretary of State decides to determine an application for permission under paragraph (2), the Secretary of State must notify both the CAA and the applicant.
(4) The CAA must not determine an application for permission where the Secretary of State has notified the CAA pursuant to paragraph (3).
(5) In exercising a function under this article, the CAA must take account of any guidance given to it by the Secretary of State (including as to the circumstances in which the Secretary of State expects to determine an application for permission).
(6) This paragraph applies if—
(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 250(6)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Operation of Air Services (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1392), regs. 1(2), 6(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) an air operator's certificate has been issued to the operator of the aircraft pursuant to the Air Navigation (Overseas Territories) Order 2013.
(7) No operator or charterer of an aircraft in relation to which the prohibition in paragraph (1) applies may hold itself out as a person who may offer to take on board or discharge any passenger or cargo in the United Kingdom where valuable consideration is given or promised except where that person reasonably believes that paragraph (2) or (6) will apply in relation to the relevant aircraft, operator or charterer by the time the relevant flight is made.
(8) For the purposes of this article—
(a) “Regulation 2111/2005” means Regulation (EC) No 2111/2005 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 December 2005 on the establishment of a list of air carriers subject to an operating ban within the United Kingdom and on informing air transport passengers of the identity of the operating air carrier, and repealing Article 9 of Directive 2004/36/EEC;
(b) “United Kingdom safety list” means the list established under Article 3 of Regulation 2111/2005.
Art. 250(8) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 65(3) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Decisions under article 250(1A) and (1B)
250A (1) This article applies to decisions of the Secretary of State—
(a) under article 250(1A); and
(b) under article 250(1B), to amend or revoke a decision under article 250(1A).
(2) The Secretary of State may make a decision to which this article applies after having given notice to the air operator concerned and having considered any representations made by that air operator.
(3) The Secretary of State may without notice make a decision to which this article applies for reasons of urgency, in which case paragraph (4) applies.
(4) Where this paragraph applies, the Secretary of State must consider any representations made subsequently by the air operator concerned, and in response to such representations may—
(a) confirm the decision made, with or without modification; or
(b) revoke the decision made.
(5) If acting under paragraph (4), the Secretary of State must act as soon as reasonably practicable.
Art. 250A inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 66 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Filing and approval of tariffs
251. (1) If a permission granted under article 250(2) contains a tariff provision and the Secretary of State so requires, the operator or charterer of the aircraft concerned must file with the CAA the tariff which it proposes to apply on flights to which the said permission relates and the CAA must consider the proposed tariff and may approve or disapprove it.
(2) In this article, “tariff provision”—
(a) means a condition as to any of the following matters—
(i) the price to be charged for the carriage of passengers, baggage or cargo on flights to which a permission granted under article 250(2) relates;
(ii) any additional goods, services or other benefits to be provided in connection with such carriage;
(iii) the prices, if any, to be charged for any such additional goods, services or benefits; and
(iv) the commission, or rates of commission, to be paid in relation to the carriage of passengers, baggage or cargo; and
(b) includes any condition as to the applicability of any such price, the provision of any such goods, services or benefits or the payment of any such commission or of commission at any such rate.

Restriction on commercial operations in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
252. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), an aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom must not fly over the United Kingdom for the purpose of commercial operations unless—
(a) the CAA has granted permission to do so to the operator or charterer of the aircraft; and
(b) any conditions, to which such permission may be subject, are satisfied.
(2) This article does not apply to an aircraft—
(a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 252(2)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Operation of Air Services (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1392), regs. 1(2), 6(3)(b); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) registered in a territory to which the Air Navigation (Overseas Territories) Order 2013 applies; or
(c) registered in the Isle of Man or Bailiwicks of Jersey or Guernsey.
Words in art. 252 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Operation of Air Services (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1392), regs. 1(2), 6(3)(a); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 4 Powers and penalties

Revocation, suspension and variation of certificates, licences and other documents
253. (1) Subject to paragraphs (5) and (6), the CAA may provisionally suspend or vary any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption, authorisation or other document issued, granted or having effect under this Order or a Safety Regulation, pending inquiry into or consideration of the case.
Words in art. 253(1) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 67 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) The CAA may, on sufficient ground being shown to its satisfaction after due inquiry, revoke, suspend or vary any such certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption, authorisation or other document.
(3) The holder or any person having the possession or custody of any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document which has been revoked, suspended or varied under this Order or a Safety Regulation must surrender it to the CAA within a reasonable time after being required to do so by the CAA.
Words in art. 253(3) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 67 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) The breach of any condition subject to which any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document, other than an aerodrome licence, has been granted or issued or which has effect under this Order or a Safety Regulation, in the absence of provision to the contrary in the document, renders the document invalid during the continuance of the breach.
Words in art. 253(4) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 67 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(5) The provisions of this article do not apply in relation to any permission to which article 255 applies.
(6) A flight manual, performance schedule or other document incorporated by reference in a certificate of airworthiness may be varied on sufficient ground being shown to the satisfaction of the CAA, whether or not after due inquiry.

Provisional suspension or variation of EASA certificates, licences and other documents
254. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 254 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 68 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Revocation, suspension and variation of permissions, etc granted under article 250 or article 252
255. (1) This article applies to any permission granted by the Secretary of State under article 250 or by the CAA under article 250 or article 252.
(2) Subject to paragraph (7), the Secretary of State or the CAA may revoke, suspend or vary any permission to which this article applies after having given notice to the other and considered representations from the operator or charterer concerned.
(3) Subject to paragraph (7), the Secretary of State or the CAA may without notice revoke, suspend or vary any permission to which this article applies for reasons of urgency, in which case paragraph (4) applies.
(4) Where this paragraph applies, the person who revoked, suspended or varied any permission without notice under paragraph (3) must consider any representations made subsequently by the operator or charterer concerned and in response to such representations may—
(a) confirm, vary or lift the suspension;
(b) confirm the revocation of permission; or
(c) reinstate the permission with or without additional or varied conditions.
(5) In acting under paragraph (4), the Secretary of State or the CAA must act as soon as reasonably practicable.
(6) In particular, and without limitation, the Secretary of State may exercise the powers under paragraphs (2) and (3) if it appears that—
(a) the operator or charterer has committed a breach of any condition to which the permission is subject;
(b) any agreement between Her Majesty's Government in the United Kingdom and the Government of any other country pursuant to which the permission was granted is no longer in force or that the other Government has breached the agreement;
(c) the operator or charterer who has been granted permission, or a Government of another country which is a party to an agreement referred to in sub-paragraph (b), or the aeronautical authorities of the country concerned, has—
(i) acted in a manner which is inconsistent with or prejudicial to the operation in good faith, according to its object and purpose, of any such agreement; or
(ii) engaged in unfair, discriminatory or restrictive practices to the prejudice of the holder of an air transport licence or a route licence in the operation of air services; or
(d) the operator or charterer, having been granted permission as a result of being designated by the Government of any other country for the purposes of an agreement referred to in sub-paragraph (b)—
(i) is no longer so designated; or
(ii) has conducted itself in such a way or is involved in such circumstances that the Secretary of State considers the exercise of those powers to be necessary or expedient.
(7) The CAA may only exercise the powers in paragraph (2) or (3) if it considers it necessary or expedient to do so for reasons of aviation safety.

Prohibitions in relation to documents and records
256. (1) A person must not, with intent to deceive—
(a) use any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document issued or required by or under this Order, or by or under a Safety Regulation ... which has been forged, altered, revoked or suspended, or to which the person is not entitled;
Words in art. 256(1)(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(a)(i)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 256(1)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(a)(i)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) lend any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or any other document issued or having effect or required by or under this Order, or by or under a Safety Regulation ... to, or allow it to be used by, any other person; or
Words in art. 256(1)(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(a)(ii)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 256(1)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(a)(ii)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) make any false representation for the purpose of procuring for any person the grant, issue, renewal or variation of any such certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document; or
(d) make any false representation in connection with the making of a declaration to the CAA required by or under this Order or by or under a Safety Regulation.
Words in art. 256(1)(d) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(a)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) In paragraph (1), a reference to a certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document includes a copy or purported copy.
(3) A person must not intentionally damage, alter or render illegible—
(a) any log book or other record required to be maintained by or under this Order, by or under a Safety Regulation; or
Words in art. 256(3)(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) any entry made in such a log book or record.
(4) A person must not—
(a) knowingly make, or procure or assist in the making of, any false entry in or material omission from any log book or record referred to in paragraph (3); or
(b) destroy any such log book or record during the period for which it is required under this Order to be preserved.
(5) All entries made in writing in any log book or record referred to in paragraph (3) must be made in ink or indelible pencil.
(6) A person must not knowingly make in a load sheet any entry which is incorrect in any material particular, or any material omission from such a load sheet.
(7) A person must not purport to issue any certificate for the purposes of this Order, any regulations made under this Order or a Safety Regulation ... unless authorised to do so by the relevant legislation.
Words in art. 256(7) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(c)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 256(7) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 69(c)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(8) A person must not issue any certificate referred to in paragraph (7) unless satisfied that all statements in the certificate are correct.

CAA's power to prevent aircraft flying
257. (1) If it appears to the CAA or an authorised person that any aircraft is intended or likely to be flown in any of the circumstances specified in paragraph (2), the CAA or that authorised person may direct in accordance with paragraph (3).
(2) The circumstances referred to in paragraph (1) are—
(a) where any provision of article 24, 32, 33, 66, 97, 98, 99, 101, ... 103, 122, 136, 137, 231 or 242(2) would be contravened in relation to the flight;
Word in art. 257(2)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 70(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) where the flight would be in contravention of any other provision of this Order, of any regulations made under this Order, or of a Safety Regulation ... and be a cause of danger to any person or property whether or not in the aircraft; or
Words in art. 257(2)(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 70(b)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 257(2)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 70(b)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) where the aircraft is in a condition unfit for the flight, whether or not the flight would otherwise be in contravention of any provision of this Order, of any regulations made under this Order, or of a Safety Regulation ....
Words in art. 257(2)(c) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 70(c)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in art. 257(2)(c) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 70(c)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) If paragraph (1) applies, the CAA or that authorised person may direct the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft not to permit the aircraft to make the particular flight or any other flight of such description as may be specified in the direction, until the direction has been revoked by the CAA or by an authorised person.
(4) If the CAA or an authorised person has directed under paragraph (3), the CAA or an authorised person may take such steps as are necessary to detain the aircraft.
(5) For the purposes of this article, the CAA or any authorised person may enter and inspect any aircraft.

Grounded aircraft not to fly
258. An aircraft which has been grounded in accordance with paragraph ARO.RAMP.140 of Part-ARO and which has not subsequently been permitted to fly must not be flown.

Secretary of State's power to prevent aircraft flying
259. (1) If it appears to the Secretary of State or an authorised person that any aircraft is intended or likely to be flown in any of the circumstances specified in paragraph (2), the Secretary of State or that authorised person may make a direction in accordance with paragraph (3).
(2) The circumstances referred to in paragraph (1) are where any provision of article 247, 250 or 252 would be contravened in relation to the flight.
(3) If paragraph (1) applies, the Secretary of State or that authorised person may direct the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft not to permit the aircraft to make a particular flight or any other flight of such description as may be specified in the direction until the direction has been revoked by the Secretary of State or by an authorised person.
(4) The Secretary of State or any authorised person may take such steps as are necessary to detain an aircraft concerning which a direction has been made under paragraph (1).
(5) For the purposes of paragraph (1), the Secretary of State or any authorised person may enter any aerodrome and may enter and inspect any aircraft.

Directions to operators of aircraft to make data available
260. (1) The Secretary of State may give a direction to any person who is an operator of an aircraft referred to in paragraph (2) requiring the operator to take the action referred to in paragraph (3).
(2) The aircraft is one which (alone or in combination with one or more other aircraft operated by the operator) is flown for the carriage of passengers from the United Kingdom (directly or via another country) to another country and is specified in the direction.
Words in art. 260(2) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Operation of Air Services (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1392), regs. 1(2), 6(4); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(3) The action is the making available electronically of data in respect of all passengers and crew on the aircraft or expected to be on the aircraft.
(4) A direction may be given in respect of—
(a) all aircraft;
(b) any aircraft; or
(c) any class of aircraft,
of which (at the time when the direction is given or at any subsequent time) the person is the operator and which is or are specified in the direction.
(5) A direction must specify—
(a) the competent authorities of the country to whom the data are to be made available electronically; and
(b) the types of data to which the direction relates.
(6) A direction only has effect in relation to data which are collected and contained in the operator's automated reservation system or departure control system.

Right of access to aerodromes and other places
261. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the CAA and any authorised person has the right of access at all reasonable times—
(a) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting the aerodrome;
(b) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting any aircraft on the aerodrome or any document which it or the authorised person has power to demand under this Order, or for the purpose of detaining any aircraft under the provisions of this Order;
(c) to any place where an aircraft has landed, for the purpose of inspecting the aircraft or any document which it or the authorised person has power to demand under this Order and for the purpose of detaining the aircraft under the provisions of this Order;
(d) to any building or place from which an air traffic control service is being provided or where any air traffic service equipment requiring approval under article 205 is situated for the purpose of inspecting—
(i) any equipment used or intended to be used in connection with the provision of a service to an aircraft in flight or on the ground; or
(ii) any document or record which it or the authorised person has power to demand under this Order.
(2) Access to a Government aerodrome may only be obtained with the permission of the person in charge of the aerodrome.

Access and inspection for airworthiness purposes
262. (1) The CAA may cause such inspections, investigations, tests, experiments and flight trials to be made as it deems necessary for the purposes of Part 4 of this Order or for the purposes of Part 21, Part 145 or Part M.
(2) Any person authorised to do so by the CAA may at any reasonable time inspect any part of, or material intended to be incorporated in or used in the manufacture of any part of, an aircraft or its equipment or any documents relating to the aircraft and may for that purpose go onto any aerodrome or enter any aircraft factory.

Obstruction of persons
263. A person must not intentionally obstruct or impede any person who is exercising a power or performing a duty under this Order or under a Safety Regulation.
Words in art. 263 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 71 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Directions and directives
264. (1) Any person who without reasonable excuse fails to comply with any direction or directive given to that person under any provision of this Order or any regulations made under this Order is deemed for the purposes of article 265 to have contravened that provision.
(2) Where any provision of this Order or any regulations made under this Order gives to a person the power to direct, the person to whom such a power is given also has the power to revoke or vary any such direction or directive.

Offences and penalties
265. (1) Subject to paragraph (2), if any provision of this Order, any regulations made under this Order or a Safety Regulation is contravened in relation to an aircraft, the operator of that aircraft and the pilot in command and, in the case of a contravention of article 250, the charterer of that aircraft, is (without prejudice to the liability of any other person for that contravention) deemed for the purposes of the following provisions of this article to have contravened that provision.
Words in art. 265(1) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 72 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(2) A person will not be deemed to have contravened a provision specified in paragraph (1) if the person proves that the contravention occurred without that person's consent or connivance and that that person exercised all due diligence to prevent the contravention.
(3) If it is proved that an act or omission of any person which would otherwise have been a contravention by that person of a provision of this Order, any regulations made under this Order or a Safety Regulation was due to any cause not avoidable by the exercise of reasonable care by that person, the act or omission will be deemed not to be a contravention by that person of that provision.
Words in art. 265(3) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 72 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(4) If a person is charged with contravening a provision of this Order or any regulations made under this Order by reason of that person having been a member of the flight crew of an aircraft on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport, public transport or commercial operation, the flight is to be treated (without prejudice to the liability of any other person under this Order) as not having been for that purpose if the person proves that they neither knew nor suspected that the flight was for that purpose.
(5) Any person who contravenes any provision specified in Part 1 of Schedule 13 is guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.
(6) Any person who contravenes any provision specified in Part 2 of Schedule 13 is guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 4 on the standard scale.
(7) Any person who contravenes any provision specified in Part 3 of Schedule 13 is guilty of an offence and punishable—
(a) on summary conviction—
(i) in England and Wales by a fine; or
(ii) in Scotland or Northern Ireland by a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum; or
(b) on conviction on indictment by a fine or by imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or to both.
(8) Any person who contravenes the provision specified in Part 4 of Schedule 13 is guilty of an offence and punishable—
(a) on summary conviction—
(i) in England and Wales by a fine; or
(ii) in Scotland or Northern Ireland by a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum; or
(b) on conviction on indictment by a fine or by imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years, or to both.

Offences: Contravention of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/947 on the rules and procedures for the operation of unmanned aircraft – UAS operator
265A. (1) A UAS operator must not cause or permit an unmanned aircraft other than a tethered small unmanned aircraft to be flown unless—
(a) the requirements in Article 4(1) of, and Part A of the Annex to, the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation are met for that flight (an ‘open’ category flight);
(b) at the time of the flight, one of the following is valid for the flight (a ‘specific’ category flight)—
(i) an operational authorisation issued to the UAS operator under Article 12 of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation;
(ii) a LUC with appropriate privileges granted to the UAS operator in accordance with point UAS.LUC.060 of the Annex to that Regulation;
(iii) an authorisation issued in accordance with Article 16 of that Regulation; or
(c) the UAS and the UAS operator have been certified as required by Article 6(1) or (2) of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation (a ‘certified’ category flight).
(2) A UAS operator who contravenes paragraph (1) is guilty of an offence.
(3) A UAS operator who contravenes a relevant requirement imposed in the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation is guilty of an offence.
(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(a) and (3), a requirement in any provision of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation is to be read together with any other provision of that Regulation that contains any exception, derogation or qualification relating to that requirement.
(5) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(a) is a requirement in any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation—
(a) Article 14(5) (registration);
(b) Article 14(8) (display of registration number);
(c) Article 19(2) (reporting of safety occurrences);
(d) in Part A of the Annex—
(i) point UAS.OPEN.050(3) (designation of remote pilot);
(ii) point UAS.OPEN.050(4)(a) (competency of remote pilot);
(iii) point UAS.OPEN.050(5) (geo-awareness updates).
(6) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(b)(i) is a requirement in any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation—
(a) Article 14(5) (registration);
(b) Article 14(8) (display of registration number);
(c) Article 19(2) (reporting of safety occurrences);
(d) in Part B of the Annex—
(i) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(a) (operational procedures and limitations);
(ii) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(b) (designation of remote pilot or allocation of responsibilities for autonomous operations);
(iii) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(d)(i) (competency of remote pilot);
(iv) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(d)(v) (operations manual);
(v) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(f) (authorised limitations and conditions);
(vi) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(g) (record-keeping);
(vii) point UAS.SPEC.090 (access to records);
(viii) point UAS.SPEC.100 (use of certified equipment).
(7) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(b)(ii) is a requirement in any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation—
(a) Article 14(5) (registration);
(b) Article 14(8) (display of registration number);
(c) Article 19(2) (reporting of safety occurrences);
(d) in Part B of the Annex—
(i) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(a) (operational procedures and limitations);
(ii) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(b) (designation of remote pilot or allocation of responsibilities for autonomous operations);
(iii) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(d)(i) (competency of remote pilot);
(iv) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(d)(v) (operations manual);
(v) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(f) (authorised limitations and conditions);
(vi) point UAS.SPEC.050(1)(g) (record-keeping);
(vii) point UAS.SPEC.100 (use of certified equipment).
(e) in Part C of the Annex—
(i) point UAS.LUC.020(2) (scope and privileges of the LUC);
(ii) point UAS.LUC.020(3) (operational control system);
(iii) point UAS.LUC.020(4) (operational risk assessment);
(iv) point UAS.LUC.020(5) (LUC record-keeping);
(v) point UAS.LUC.090 (access to records).
(8) For the purposes of paragraph (7), the holder of a LUC who, in accordance with a privilege granted under point UAS.LUC.060(2) of Part C of the Annex to the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation, authorises a flight without applying for an operational authorisation is to be taken as having complied with any requirement in a provision referred to in paragraph (7)(d) relating to an operational authorisation.
(9) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph 1(b)(iii) is a requirement of any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation—
(a) Article 14(5) (registration), subject to Article 16(4);
(b) Article 14(8) (display of registration number);
(c) Article 19(2) (reporting of safety occurrences),
and any condition of a kind referred to in Article 16(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation that is imposed on the UAS operator in the authorisation.
Arts. 265A-265F inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 9 (with art. 13)

Offences: Contravention of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/947 on the rules and procedures for the operation of unmanned aircraft – remote pilot
265B. (1)  A remote pilot must not fly an unmanned aircraft other than a tethered small unmanned aircraft unless—
(a) at the time of take-off, the remote pilot reasonably holds the view that the requirements in Article 4(1) of, and Part A of the Annex to, the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation will be met in respect of the planned flight (an ‘open’ category flight);
(b) at the time of the flight, one of the following is valid for the flight (a ‘specific’ category flight)—
(i) an operational authorisation issued to the UAS operator under Article 12 of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation;
(ii) a LUC with appropriate privileges granted to the UAS operator in accordance with point UAS.LUC.060 of the Annex to that Regulation;
(iii) an authorisation issued in accordance with Article 16 of that Regulation; or
(c) the UAS and the UAS operator have been certified as required by Article 6(1) or (2) of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation (a ‘certified’ category flight).
(2) A remote pilot who contravenes paragraph (1) in relation to a flight, and who was not also the UAS operator in relation to that flight, is guilty of an offence.
(3) A remote pilot who contravenes a relevant requirement imposed in the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation is guilty of an offence.
(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(a) and (3), a requirement in any provision of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation is to be read together with any other provision of that Regulation that contains any exception, derogation or qualification relating to that requirement.
(5) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(a) is a requirement imposed in any of the following provisions of Part A of the Annex to the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation—
(a) point UAS.OPEN.010(2) (maximum operating height);
(b) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(a), insofar as it relates to having the appropriate competency in the intended subcategory of flight;
(c) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(a), insofar as it relates to carrying proof of competency;
(d) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(d) (certain safety checks);
(e) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(e) (MTOM check);
(f) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(a) (fitness to fly);
(g) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(b), insofar as it requires the remote pilot to keep the unmanned aircraft in visual line of sight;
(h) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(b), insofar as it relates to discontinuing the flight in certain circumstances;
(i) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(c) (geographical zones);
(j) point UAS.OPEN.060(3) (flights close to emergency response).
(6) For the purposes of paragraph (3), in the case of a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(a) with a UAS of a kind specified in a provision of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation listed in column 1 of Table 1 below, a “relevant requirement” also includes a requirement imposed in a provision of that Regulation specified in column 2 of that table (where “point” refers to a point in the Annex to that Regulation).
Table 1
Provision specifying the kind of UAS	Provision containing “relevant requirements”
Article 22(a)	Point UAS.OPEN.020(1)
Point UAS.OPEN.020(5)(a), (b) or (c)	Point UAS.OPEN.020(2)
Point UAS.OPEN.020(5)(d)	Point UAS.OPEN.020(1)
Point UAS.OPEN.040(4)(c) if, at the time of take-off, the remote pilot does not intend to comply with points UAS.OPEN.040(1) and (2) of that Annex	Point UAS.OPEN.030(1)
Article 22(b)	Article 22(b)
Point UAS.OPEN.040(4)(c) if, at the time of take-off, the remote pilot intends to comply with points UAS.OPEN.040(1) and (2) of that Annex	Points UAS.OPEN.040(1) and (2)
Point UAS.OPEN.040(4)(a), (b), (d) or (e)	Points UAS.OPEN.040(1) and (2)
Article 22(c)	Points UAS.OPEN.040(1) and (2)
(7) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(b)(i) or (ii) is a requirement imposed in any of the following provisions of Part B of the Annex to the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation—
(a) point UAS.SPEC.060(1)(a) (fitness to fly);
(b) point UAS.SPEC.060(1)(b), insofar as it relates to having the appropriate competency;
(c) point UAS.SPEC.060(1)(b), insofar as it relates to carrying proof of competency;
(d) point UAS.SPEC.060(2)(c) (certain safety checks);
(e) point UAS.SPEC.060(3)(a) (authorised limitations and conditions);
(f) point UAS.SPEC.060(3)(b) (risk avoidance);
(g) point UAS.SPEC.060(3)(c) (geographical zones);
(h) point UAS.SPEC.060(3)(d) (operator’s procedures);
(i) point UAS.SPEC.060(3)(e) (flights close to emergency response).
(8) For the purposes of paragraph (3), a “relevant requirement” in relation to a flight conducted in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (1)(b)(iii) is any condition of a kind referred to in Article 16(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation that is imposed on the remote pilot in the authorisation.

Offence: registration of certified unmanned aircraft
265C. (1) The owner of an unmanned aircraft required by Article 6(1) or (2) of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation to be certified must not cause or permit that aircraft to be flown unless the owner has first registered that aircraft in accordance with Article 14(7) of that Regulation.
(2) Any person who contravenes paragraph (1) is guilty of an offence.

Minimum age requirements: UAS operators and remote pilots
265D. (1) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 265D(1) omitted (4.11.2024) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 7
(2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 265D(2) omitted (4.11.2024) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 7
(3) A UAS operator must not cause or permit an unmanned aircraft other than a tethered small unmanned aircraft to be flown by a remote pilot who does not meet the minimum age for operating a UAS required by Article 9 of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation, subject to paragraphs (1) and (2).
(4) A UAS operator who contravenes paragraph (3) is guilty of an offence.
(5) Paragraphs (3) and (4) cease to have effect on IP completion day.
(6) In the case of an individual, the CAA must not issue a unique digital registration number to a UAS operator in accordance with Article 14(6) of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation unless the UAS operator is at least 18 years of age.
(7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 265D(7) omitted (4.11.2024) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 7

Offences: tethered small unmanned aircraft
265E. (1) A UAS operator must not cause or permit a tethered small unmanned aircraft to be flown, unless the following requirements of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation are complied with in relation to the tethered small unmanned aircraft—
(a) Article 14(5) (registration);
(b) Article 14(8) (display of registration number);
(c) Article 19(2) (reporting safety occurrences);
(d) point UAS.OPEN.050(3) of Part A of the Annex (designation of remote pilot);
(e) point UAS.OPEN.050(5) of Part A of the Annex (geo-awareness updates).
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a remote pilot must not fly a tethered small unmanned aircraft unless the following requirements of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation are complied with in relation to the tethered small unmanned aircraft—
(a) where the tethered small unmanned aircraft has a MTOM of less than 250g, the following provisions of Part A of the Annex to that Regulation—
(i) point UAS.OPEN.010(2) (maximum operating height);
(ii) point UAS.OPEN.020(2) (overflight of people);
(iii) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(d) (certain safety checks);
(iv) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(a) (fitness to fly);
(v) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(b), insofar as it requires the remote pilot to keep the unmanned aircraft in visual line of sight;
(vi) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(b), insofar as it relates to discontinuing the flight in certain circumstances;
(vii) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(c) (geographical zones);
(viii) point UAS.OPEN.060(3) (flights close to emergency response);
(b) where the tethered small unmanned aircraft has a MTOM 250g or more, the following provisions of Part A of that Annex—
(i) point UAS.OPEN.010(2) (maximum operating height);
(ii) point UAS.OPEN.020(4)(b) (competency);
(iii) point UAS.OPEN.040(1) (overflight of people);
(iv) point UAS.OPEN.040(2) (horizontal distances);
(v) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(a) insofar as relates to carrying proof of competency;
(vi) point UAS.OPEN.060(1)(d) (certain safety checks);
(vii) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(a) (fitness to fly);
(viii) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(b), insofar as it requires the remote pilot to keep the unmanned aircraft in visual line of sight;
(ix) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(b), insofar as it relates to discontinuing the flight in certain circumstances;
(x) point UAS.OPEN.060(2)(c) (geographical zones);
(xi) point UAS.OPEN.060(3) (flights close to emergency response).
(3) A remote pilot may fly a tethered small unmanned aircraft in a manner not in compliance with the requirements specified in paragraphs (2)(a)(i), (2)(a)(ii), (2)(a)(v), (2)(b)(i), (2)(b)(iii), (2)(b)(iv) and (2)(b)(viii) provided that flight or that part of that flight is in accordance with a permission issued by the CAA to the UAS operator.
(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (1) and (2), any reference to an “unmanned aircraft” or “UAS” in the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation is to be read as if it includes a tethered small unmanned aircraft or a system that includes such an aircraft.
(5) The UAS operator or a remote pilot of a tethered small unmanned aircraft must not cause or permit—
(a) any material to be dropped from, or dangerous goods to be carried on, the aircraft during flight;
(b) the aircraft to be flown where the limit imposed by the restraining device is more than 25m long,
other than in accordance with a permission issued by the CAA to the UAS operator.
(6) The UAS operator must not cause or permit a tethered small unmanned aircraft to be flown unless the UAS operator has reasonably formed the view that the remote pilot of the aircraft complies with the requirement specified in paragraph (2)(b)(ii) in relation to that flight.
Words in art. 265E(6) substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 9
(7) Any person who contravenes paragraph (1), (2), (5) or (6) is guilty of an offence.
(8) In this article, “dangerous goods” and “MTOM” have the meanings assigned to them in Article 2 of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation.

Penalties
265F. (1) Any person guilty of an offence under article 265A(2) or article 265B(2) is liable on summary conviction—
(a) in England and Wales to a fine; or
(b) in Scotland or Northern Ireland to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum.
(2) Any person guilty of an offence under article 265A(3) is liable on summary conviction to a fine—
(a) not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale if the offence relates to contravention of a relevant requirement referred to in—
(i) article 265A(5)(a) (registration);
(ii) article 265A(5)(b) (display of registration number);
(iii) article 265A(5)(d)(i) (designation of remote pilot);
(iv) article 265A(5)(d)(ii) (competency of remote pilot);
(v) article 265A(5)(d)(iii) (geo-awareness updates);
(vi) article 265A(6)(a) (registration);
(vii) article 265A(6)(b) (display of registration number);
(viii) article 265A(6)(d)(ii) (designation of remote pilot or allocation of responsibilities for autonomous operations);
(ix) article 265A(6)(d)(iii) (competence of remote pilot);
(x) article 265A(6)(d)(iv) (operations manual);
(xi) article 265A(6)(d)(vi) (record-keeping);
(xii) article 265A(6)(vii) (access to records);
(xiii) article 265A(7)(a) (registration);
(xiv) article 265A(7)(b) (display of registration number);
(xv) article 265A(7)(d)(ii) (designation of remote pilot or allocation of responsibilities for autonomous operations);
(xvi) article 265A(7)(d)(iii) (competency of remote pilot);
(xvii) article 265A(7)(d)(iv) (operations manual);
(xviii) article 265A(7)(d)(vi) (record-keeping);
(xix) article 265A(7)(e)(iv) (LUC record-keeping);
(xx) article 265A(7)(e)(v) (access to records);
(xxi) article 265A(9)(a) (registration); or
(xxii) article 265A(9)(b) (display of registration number);
(b) not exceeding level 4 on the standard scale in any other case.
(3) Any person guilty of an offence under article 265B(3) is liable on summary conviction to a fine—
(a) not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale if the offence relates to contravention of a relevant requirement referred to in article 265B(5)(c) or (7)(c) (requirements for remote pilot to carry proof of competency);
(b) not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale if the offence relates to contravention of a relevant requirement referred to in article 265B(5)(b), (5)(e) or (7)(b) (requirements for remote pilot to have appropriate competency and verify MTOM);
(c) not exceeding level 4 on the standard scale in any other case.
(4) Any person guilty of an offence under article 265C(2) or 265D(4) is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.
(5) Any person guilty of an offence under article 265E(7) is liable on summary conviction to a fine—
(a) not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale if the offence relates to the requirement in article 265E(2)(b)(v) (requirement for remote pilot to carry proof of competency);
(b) not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale if the offence relates to a requirement referred to in—
(i) article 265E(1)(a) (registration);
(ii) article 265E(1)(b) (display of registration number);
(iii) article 265E(1)(d) (designation of remote pilot);
(iv) article 265E(1)(e) (geo-awareness updates);
(v) article 265E(2)(b)(ii) (competency); or
(vi) article 265E(6) (remote pilot competency);
(c) not exceeding level 4 on the standard scale in any other case.

Fixed penalty offences
265G. In the case of an offence under any provision of this Order which is prescribed under paragraph 2(2) of Schedule 10 to the Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021, this Order has effect subject to Schedule 10 to that Act (fixed penalties for certain offences relating to unmanned aircraft).
Art. 265G inserted (29.4.2021 for specified purposes, 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force) by Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021 (c. 12), s. 21(1)(a), Sch. 10 para. 2(3); S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)

Exemption from Order
266. The CAA may exempt from any of the provisions of this Order (other than articles 179, 230, 247, 250, 251, 252, 255, and 267) or any regulations made under this Order, any aircraft or persons or classes of aircraft or persons, subject to such conditions it deems appropriate.

Appeal to County Court or Sheriff Court
267. (1) Subject to paragraphs (3), (4) and (5), an appeal lies to a county court from any decision of the CAA that a person is not a fit person to hold a licence to act as—
(a) an aircraft maintenance engineer;
(b) a member of the flight crew of an aircraft;
(c) an air traffic controller;
(d) a student air traffic controller; or
(e) a flight information service officer.
(2) If the court is satisfied that, on the evidence submitted to the CAA, it was wrong in deciding that a person is not a fit person to hold a licence, the court may reverse the CAA's decision and the CAA must give effect to the court's determination.
(3) An appeal does not lie from a decision of the CAA that a person is not qualified to hold the licence by reason of a deficiency in that person's knowledge, experience, competence, skill, physical or mental fitness.
(4) If the appellant resides or has its registered or principal office in Scotland, the appeal lies to the sheriff within whose jurisdiction the appellant resides and the appeal is by way of summary application.
(5) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in rules governing appeals to the county court in Northern Ireland, if the appellant resides or has its registered or principal office in Northern Ireland the appeal lies to a county court held under the County Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1980.
(6) The CAA is a respondent to any appeal under this article.
(7) For the purposes of any provision relating to the time within which an appeal may be brought, the CAA's decision is deemed to have been taken on the date on which the CAA supplied a statement of its reasons for the decision to the applicant for the licence or the holder or former holder of it.
(8) In the case of an appeal to the sheriff—
(a) the sheriff may, if the sheriff thinks fit, and on the application of any party, appoint one or more persons of skill and experience in the matter to which the proceedings relate to act as assessor;
(b) where it is proposed to appoint any person as an assessor, an objection to the proposed assessor, either personally or concerning the proposed assessor's qualification, may be stated by any party to the appeal and must be considered and disposed of by the sheriff.
(9) The assessors for each sheriffdom must be appointed from a list of persons approved for the purposes by the sheriff principal and—
(a) such a list must be published in such manner as the sheriff principal directs;
(b) such a list will be in force for three years only, but persons entered in any such list may be again approved in any subsequent list; and
(c) it is lawful for the sheriff principal to defer the preparation of such a list until application has been made to appoint an assessor in an appeal in one of the courts in their sheriffdom.
(10) The sheriff before whom an appeal is heard with the assistance of an assessor must make a note of any question submitted by the sheriff to such assessor and of the answer to that question.
(11) An appeal lies on a point of law from any decision of a sheriff under this article to the Court of Session.

Approval of persons to supply reports
268. In relation to any of its functions under any of the provisions of this Order the CAA may approve a person as qualified to supply reports to it and may accept such reports.

Certificates, authorisations, approvals and permissions
269. Wherever in this Order there is provision for the issue or grant of a certificate, authorisation, approval or permission by the CAA, unless otherwise provided, such a certificate, authorisation, approval or permission—
(a) must be in writing;
(b) may be issued or granted subject to such conditions as the CAA thinks fit; and
(c) may be issued or granted, subject to article 253, for such periods as the CAA thinks fit.

Competent authority
270. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 270 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 73 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Functions under the Basic EASA Regulation to be exercised by the CAA
271. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 271 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 74 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Functions under the EASA Aircrew Regulation to be exercised by the CAA
272. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 272 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 75 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Functions under the Occurrence Reporting Regulation to be exercised by the CAA
273. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 273 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 76 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

PART 11 Revocations and savings, consequential amendments and transitional arrangements

Revocations and savings, consequential amendments and transitional arrangements
274. (1) Schedule 14 (revocations and savings, consequential amendments and transitional arrangements) has effect.
(2) Subject to articles 212, 214 and 216, nothing in this Order or any regulations made under this Order confers any right to land in any place as against the owner of the land or any other persons interested in the land.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), anything done under, or by virtue of, any article or regulation revoked by this Order, if it could have been done under or for the purpose of the corresponding provision of this Order, is to be deemed to have been done under or by virtue of the corresponding provision of this Order and anything begun under, or by virtue of, any such article or regulation may be continued under this Order as if begun under this Order.
(4) Nothing in this Order obliges the CAA to accept an application from the holder of any current certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document, being an application for the renewal of that document, or for the grant of another document in continuation of or in substitution for the current document, if the application is made more than 60 days before the current document is due to expire.

PART 12 Review

Review
275. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Art. 275 omitted (4.11.2024) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 8
Ceri King
Deputy Clerk of the Privy Council

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE 1 INTERPRETATION
Article 2
1. In this Order—
“the 2015 Regulations” means the International Interests in Aircraft Equipment (Cape Town Convention) Regulations 2015 ;
“A to A commercial air transport aeroplane” means an aeroplane flying, or intended by the operator to fly, on an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation;
“A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation” means an aircraft operation—
(a) by a performance class B aeroplane;
(b) for the purpose of transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration; and
(c) starting and ending at the same place;
...
“A to A public transport flight” means a flight for the purpose of public transport by an aircraft starting and ending at the same place;
“Accident prevention and flight safety programme” means a programme designed to detect and eliminate or avoid hazards in order to improve the safety of flight operations;
“A Conditions” means the conditions set out in Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;
“ACAS II” means the airborne collision avoidance system II referred to in the Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation;
“aerobatic manoeuvres” includes loops, spins, rolls, bunts, stall turns, inverted flying and any other similar manoeuvre intentionally performed by an aircraft;
“Aerodrome”—
(a) means any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft; and
(b) includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing vertically; but
(c) does not include any area the use of which for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been resumed;
“Aerodrome control service” means an air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic;
“Aerodrome operating minima” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and runway visual range for take-off, and the decision height or minimum descent height, runway visual range and visual reference for landing, which are the minimum for the operation of that aircraft at that aerodrome;
“Aerodrome traffic” means all traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and includes, but is not limited to, aircraft entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit;
“Aerodrome traffic circuit” means the path to be flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome under provision 3225(b) of SERA;
“Aerodrome traffic zone” has the meaning assigned to it by article 5;
“Aeronautical beacon” means an aeronautical ground light which is visible either continuously or intermittently to designate a particular point on the surface of the earth;
“Aeronautical ground light” means any light specifically provided as an aid to air navigation, other than a light displayed on an aircraft;
“Aeronautical radio station” means a radio station on the surface, which transmits or receives signals for the purpose of assisting aircraft;
“Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No. 1332/2011 of 16th December 2011 laying down common airspace usage requirements and operating procedures for airborne collision avoidance , as amended from time to time
“Aircraft rating” includes a type rating and a class rating;
“Air/ground communications service” means a service provided from an aerodrome to aerodrome traffic by means of radio signals and “air/ground communications service unit” is to be construed accordingly;
“Air traffic control service” means a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft, and, on the manoeuvring area, between aircraft and obstructions, and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic;
“Air traffic control unit” means a unit of air traffic controllers established by a person appointed by a person maintaining an aerodrome or other place in order to provide an area control service, an aerodrome control service or an approach control service;
“Air traffic service equipment” means ground based equipment, including an aeronautical radio station, used or intended to be used in connection with the provision of a service to an aircraft in flight or on the ground which equipment is not otherwise approved by or under this Order but excluding—
(a) any public electronic communications network; and
(b) any equipment concerning which the CAA has made a direction that it is not air traffic service equipment for the purposes of articles 205 and 206;
“Altitude hold and heading mode” mean aircraft autopilot functions which enable the aircraft to maintain an accurate height and an accurate heading;
“annual cost”, in relation to the operation of an aircraft, means the cost (excluding any element of profit) of keeping, maintaining and operating the aircraft over the period of one year;
“Annual flying hours” means the best estimate reasonably practicable at the time of a particular flight by an aircraft of the hours flown or to be flown by the aircraft for the year commencing on the first day of January preceding the date of the flight;
“Approach control service” means an air traffic control service for any aircraft which is not receiving an aerodrome control service, which is flying in, or in the vicinity of the aerodrome traffic zone of the aerodrome for which the service is being provided, whether or not the aircraft is flying by visual reference to the surface;
“Approach to landing” means that portion of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height of 1,000 feet above the relevant specified decision height or minimum descent height;
“Appropriate aeronautical radio station” means in relation to an aircraft an aeronautical radio station serving the area in which the aircraft is for the time being;
“Appropriate air traffic control unit” means, in relation to an aircraft, as the context requires—
(a) the air traffic control unit serving the area in which the aircraft currently is; or
(b) the air traffic control unit serving the area which the aircraft intends to enter and with which unit the aircraft is required to communicate before entering that area;
“Apron” means the part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for—
(a) the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers;
(b) the loading and unloading of mail or cargo;
(c) maintenance; and
(d) parking;
“Area control centre” means an air traffic control unit established to provide an area control service to aircraft flying within a notified flight information region which are not receiving an aerodrome control service or an approach control service;
“Area control service” means an air traffic control service for flights subject to an air traffic control clearance in control areas;
“Area navigation equipment” means equipment carried on board an aircraft which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the limits of that on-board equipment or a combination of the two;
“Authorised person” means—
(a) any constable;
(b) in any article other than article 259, any person authorised by the CAA (whether by name or by class or description) either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases; and
(c) in article 259, any person authorised by the Secretary of State (whether by name, or by class or description) either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases;
“Automated reservation system” means the central reservation system of the operator of an aircraft which holds data relating to a flight booked by or on behalf of a passenger;
“B Conditions” means the conditions set out in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;
“Balloon Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 of 13 March 2018 laying down detailed rules for the operation of balloons as well as for the flight crew licensing for balloons pursuant to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council;
“Basic Regulation” means Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 July 2018 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Union Aviation Safety Agency, and amending Regulations (EC) No 2111/2005, (EC) No 1008/2008, (EU) No 996/2010, (EU) No 376/2014 and Directives 2014/30/EU and 2014/53/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Regulations (EC) No 552/2004 and (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council and Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91;
“Beneficial interest” includes interests arising under contract and other equitable interests;
“British protected person” has the same meaning as in section 50 of the British Nationality Act 1981 ;
“Cabin crew” in relation to an aircraft means those persons on a public transport flight carried for the purpose of performing duties to be assigned by the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft in the interests of the safety of passengers but who do not act as a member of the flight crew;
“Captive balloon” means a balloon which when in flight is attached by a restraining device to the surface;
“Captive flight” means flight by an uncontrollable balloon during which it is attached to the surface by a restraining device;
“Cargo” includes mail and animals;
“Category II approach and landing” means a landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing System or Microwave Landing System with—
(a) a decision height below 200 feet but not less than 100 feet; and
(b) a runway visual range of not less than 300 metres;
“Category IIIA approach and landing” means a landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing System or Microwave Landing System with—
(a) a decision height lower than 100 feet; and
(b) a runway visual range of not less than 200 metres;
“Category IIIB approach and landing” means a landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing System or Microwave Landing System with—
(a) a decision height lower than 50 feet or no decision height; and
(b) a runway visual range of less than 200 metres but not less than 75 metres;
“Certificate of airworthiness” includes in the case of a national certificate of airworthiness any flight manual, performance schedule or other document, whatever its title, incorporated by reference in that certificate relating to the certificate of airworthiness;
“Certificate of release to service issued under this Order” means a certificate issued in accordance with article 47 by a person specified in article 48;
“Certificate of revalidation” means a certificate issued in accordance with ... Part 3 of Schedule 8 for the purpose of maintaining the privileges of a flight crew licence;
“Certificate of validity” has the meaning assigned to it by article 41(5);
“Certificated for single pilot operation” means in relation to an aircraft one which is not required to carry more than one pilot by virtue of any one or more of the following—
(a) the certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the related flight manual;
(b) if no certificate of airworthiness is required to be in force, the certificate of airworthiness, if any, last in force for the aircraft or the related flight manual;
(c) if no certificate of airworthiness is or has previously been in force but the aircraft is identical in design with an aircraft for which such a certificate is or has been in force, the certificate of airworthiness which is or has been in force for such an identical aircraft or the related flight manual; or
(d) in the case of an aircraft flying in accordance with the conditions of a national permit to fly or a Part-21 permit to fly, that permit to fly;
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
“certification” means any form of recognition that a product, part or appliance, organisation or person complies with the applicable requirements including the provisions of this Order or the Basic ... Regulation and its implementing rules, as well as the issue of any certificate attesting to such compliance;
“certification specifications” means technical standards adopted by the CAA indicating means to show compliance with a Safety Regulation, as amended from time to time, and which can be used by an organisation for the purpose of certification;
“Chicago Convention” means the Convention on International Civil Aviation and its Annexes , signed in Chicago on 7th December 1944, as amended;
“Class A airspace”, “Class B airspace”, “Class C airspace”, “Class D airspace”, “Class E airspace”, “Class F airspace” and “Class G airspace” mean airspace respectively notified as such;
“Class rating” means a rating that entitles the holder of a pilot licence to act as pilot of an aircraft of a specified class that does not require a type rating;
“Cloud ceiling” means the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6,000 metres which, when visible from the aerodrome, is sufficient to obscure more than half the sky;
“the Commonwealth” means the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man, the countries mentioned in Schedule 3 to the British Nationality Act 1981 and all other territories forming part of Her Majesty's dominions or in which Her Majesty has jurisdiction and “Commonwealth citizen” is to be construed accordingly;
“Commercial air transport aircraft” means an aircraft flying, or intended by the operator to fly, for the purpose of commercial air transport;
“Commercial air transport operation” means an aircraft operation for the purpose of transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration which is required to be conducted under and in accordance with Part-CAT and Part-ORO but which is not an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation ...;
“commercial operation” has the meaning assigned to it by article 7;
“commercial operation aircraft” means an aircraft (other than a commercial air transport aircraft or a public transport aircraft) flying, or intended by the operator to fly, for the purpose of commercial operation;
“commercial operation flight” means a flight for the purpose of commercial operation;
“commercial operation undertaking” means an undertaking whose business includes the performance of commercial operation;
“Competent authority” means ... in relation to the United Kingdom, the CAA, and in relation to any other country the authority responsible under the law of that country for promoting the safety of civil aviation;
“complex aeroplane” means an aeroplane which is a complex motor-powered aircraft, and non-complex aeroplane is to be construed accordingly;
“complex helicopter” means a helicopter which is a complex motor-powered aircraft, and non-complex helicopter is to be construed accordingly;
“complex motor-powered aircraft” means—
(a) an aeroplane—
(i) with a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700kg;
(ii) certificated for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen;
(iii) certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots; or
(iv) equipped with a turbojet engines or more than one turboprop engine;
(b) a helicopter certificated—
(i) for a maximum take-off mass exceeding 3,175kg;
(ii) for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine; or
(iii) for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots;
(c) a tilt rotor aircraft,
and “non-complex motor-powered aircraft” is to be construed accordingly;
“Conditional sale agreement” has the same meaning as in section 189 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 ;
“Congested area” in relation to a city, town or settlement, means any area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes;
“Contracting State” means any State (including the United Kingdom) which is party to the Chicago Convention;
“Controllable balloon” means a balloon which is not a small balloon and which is capable of free con-trolled flight;
“Controlled aerodrome” has the same meaning as in Article 2(57) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation;
“Controlled airspace” means airspace which has been notified as Class A airspace, Class B airspace, Class C airspace, Class D airspace or Class E airspace;
“Controlled flight” has the same meaning as in Article 2(59) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation;
“Control area” means controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control area and which extends upwards from a notified altitude or flight level;
“Control zone” means controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control zone and which extends upwards from the surface;
“Co-pilot” means a pilot who in performing duties as such is subject to the direction of another pilot carried in the aircraft;
“Country” includes a territory;
“Crew” means persons carried in an aircraft who are—
(a) a member of the flight crew;
(b) a person carried on the flight deck who is appointed by the operator of the aircraft to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice and periodical tests required for the flight crew under article 114(2) ...; or
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(f) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(c) a member of the cabin crew;
“Critical power unit” means the power unit whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft;
“cross-country flight” means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route, using standard navigation procedures;
“day” means the time from half an hour before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;
“Danger Area” means airspace which has been notified as such within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may take place or exist at such times as may be notified;
“Decision height” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue that approach has not been established;
“Declared distance” has the meaning which has been notified;
“Departure control system” means, in relation to an operator of an aircraft, the system used by the operator to check passengers onto a flight;
“destination alternate aerodrome” means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing;
“direct costs” means the costs only directly incurred for a flight and include only—
(a) fuel;
(b) oil;
(c) airfield charges; and
(d) aircraft rental fees at current market rate;
“Director” has the same meaning as in section 250 of the Companies Act 2006;
...
“... aerodrome certificate” means a certificate issued under the ... Aerodromes Regulation;
“... Aerodromes Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 139/2014 of 12th February 2014 laying down requirements and administrative procedures related to aerodromes pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council , as amended from time to time;
“... Air Operations Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 of 5th October 2012 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to air operations pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council , as amended from time to time;
“... Air Traffic Controller Licensing Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 2015/340 of 20th February 2015 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures relating to air traffic controllers’ licences and certificates pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council, amending Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 and repealing Commission Regulation (EU) No 805/2011;
“Part-21 aircraft” means an aircraft which is required by the Basic ... Regulation and any implementing rules adopted by the Commission or the Secretary of State in accordance with that Regulation to hold a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness, a Part-21 restricted certificate of airworthiness or a Part-21 permit to fly;
“... Aircraft Certification Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EC) No 748/2012 of 3rd August 2012 laying down implementing rules for the airworthiness and environmental certification of aircraft and related products, parts and appliances, as well as for the certification of design and production organisations , as amended from time to time;
“... Aircrew Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3rd November 2011, laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation air crew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council , as amended from time to time;
“Part-21 certificate of airworthiness” means a certificate of airworthiness issued for a Part-21 aircraft under and in accordance with subpart H of Part 21;
“... certified aerodrome” means an aerodrome for which an ... aerodrome certificate is in force;
“... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EC) No 1321/2014 of 26th November 2014 on the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organisations and personnel involved in these tasks , as amended from time to time;
...
“Part-21 permit to fly” means a permit to fly issued for a Part-21 aircraft under and in accordance with subpart P of Part 21;
“Safety Regulation” means the Basic ... Regulation and any implementing rule made under that Regulation;
“Part-21 restricted certificate of airworthiness” means a restricted certificate of airworthiness issued for a Part-21 aircraft under and in accordance with subpart H of Part 21;
“E Conditions” means the conditions set out in Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;
“E Conditions approved person” has the meaning given in paragraph 5(4) of Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;
“E Conditions competent person” has the meaning given in paragraph 5(1) of Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;
“E Conditions Declaration”' means a declaration specified at paragraph 4 of the E Conditions;
...
...
...
...
“Flight” and “to fly” have the meanings respectively assigned to them by article 3;
“Flight check” means a check carried out by an aircraft in flight of the accuracy and reliability of signals transmitted by an aeronautical radio station;
“Flight crew” in relation to an aircraft means those members of the crew of the aircraft who respectively undertake to act as pilot, flight navigator, flight engineer and flight radiotelephony operator of the aircraft;
“Flight data monitoring programme” means a programme of analysing recorded flight data in order to improve the safety of flight operations;
“Flight for the purpose of commercial air transport” means a commercial air transport operation or an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation;
“Flight information service” means—
(a) in the case of an aerodrome—
(i) the giving of advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights by means of radio signals to aircraft flying in or intending to fly within the aerodrome traffic zone of that aerodrome; and
(ii) the grant or refusal of a permission under provision 8015 of SERA or under rule 12(1)(b) or 13(2) of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015; and
(b) in the case of an area control centre, the giving of advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights by means of radio signals to aircraft,
and “aerodrome flight information service” is to be construed accordingly;
“Flight information service unit” means a person appointed by the CAA or by any other person maintaining an aerodrome or area control centre to provide a flight information service and “aerodrome flight information service unit” is to be construed accordingly;
“Flight level” means one of a series of levels of equal atmospheric pressure, separated by notified intervals and each expressed as the number of hundreds of feet which would be indicated at that level on a pressure altimeter calibrated in accordance with the International Standard Atmosphere and set to 1013.2 hectopascals;
“Flight manual” means a document provided for an aircraft stating the limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy as defined by the appropriate airworthiness requirements, and additional instructions and information necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;
“Flight simulator” means any type of apparatus by means of which flight conditions in an aircraft are simulated on the ground, including—
(a) simulators;
(b) flight training devices;
(c) flight and navigation procedures trainers; and
(d) basic instrument training devices;
“Flight visibility” means the visibility forward from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight;
“Flying display” means any flying activity deliberately performed for the purpose of providing an exhibition or entertainment at an advertised event open to the public;
“Flying machine” means an aeroplane, a powered lift tilt rotor aircraft, a SLMG, a helicopter or a gyroplane;
“Free balloon” means a balloon which when in flight is not attached by any form of restraining device to the surface;
“Free controlled flight” means flight during which—
(a) a balloon is not attached to the surface by any form of restraining device (other than a tether of not more than five metres in length which may be used as part of the take-off procedure); and
(b) the height of the balloon is controllable by means of a device attached to the balloon and operated by the pilot in command of the balloon or by remote control;
“full flight simulator” means a flight simulator which is a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, and a force cueing motion system;
“General lighthouse authority” has the same meaning as in section 193 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1995 ;
“General medical practitioner” means a person registered in the General Practitioner Register kept by the General Medical Council;
“Glider” means—
(a) a non-power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;
(b) a self-sustaining glider; and
(c) a self-propelled hang-glider;
“Government aerodrome” means any aerodrome in the United Kingdom which is in the occupation of any Government Department or visiting force;
“Holding” means, in the case of an aircraft approaching an aerodrome to land, a manoeuvre in the air which keeps that aircraft within a specified volume of airspace;
“Hostile environment” means, for the purposes of sub-paragraphs 4(12)(b)(ix) and (xvii) of Part 1 of Schedule 6, an environment in which—
(a) a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface is inadequate; or
(b) the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements; or
(c) search and rescue response and capability is not provided consistent with anticipated exposure; or
(d) there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground;
“Instructor's rating” means a flight instructor certificate, an flight instructor (restricted) certificate, a flight instructor rating (aeroplane), a flight instructor rating (helicopter), a type rating instructor rating (multipilot aeroplane), a type rating instructor rating (helicopter), a class rating instructor rating (single pilot aeroplane), an instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) or an instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) or any instructor certificate issued in accordance with Part-FCL;
“Instrument approach procedure” means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments, with specified protection from obstacles, from a specified point to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or other obstacle clearance criteria apply;
“Instrument flight procedure” means—
(a) a standard instrument arrival;
(b) an instrument approach procedure;
(c) a standard instrument departure; or
(d) an omnidirectional departure;
“Instrument Flight Rules” means instrument flight rules prescribed by Section 5 of SERA;
“Instrument Landing System” means a ground-based radio system designed to transmit radio signals at very high frequency and ultra high frequency that allow the pilot of an aircraft to accurately determine the aircraft's position relative to a defined approach path whilst carrying out an approach to land;
“Instrument Meteorological Conditions” means weather precluding flight in compliance with the Visual Flight Rules;
“International headquarters” means an international headquarters designated by Order in Council under section 1 of the International Headquarters and Defence Organisations Act 1964 ;
“JAA” means the body that was known as the Joint Aviation Authorities, until its dissolution on 30th June 2009, which was previously an associated body of the European Civil Aviation Conference;
“JAA Full Member State” means a State which was a full member of the JAA on 30th June 2009;
“JAR-FCL 1” means, unless otherwise specified, the Joint Aviation Requirement of the JAA bearing that title including Amendment 5 adopted by the JAA on 1st March 2006;
“JAR-FCL 2” means the Joint Aviation Requirement of the JAA bearing that title including Amendment 3 adopted by the JAA on 1st September 2003;
“kg” means kilogramme;
“km” means kilometre;
“To land” in relation to aircraft includes alighting on the water;
“Large rocket” means a rocket of which the total impulse of the motor or combination of motors is more than 10,240 Newton-seconds;
“Legal personal representative” means the person constituted as the executor, administrator, or other representative, of a deceased person;
“Let-down” means, in the case of an aircraft approaching an aerodrome to land, a defined procedure designed to enable an aircraft to descend safely to a point at which it can continue the approach visually;
“Level”, of an aerodrome, means the notified elevation of the aerodrome;
“Licence” includes in relation to a flight crew licence any certificate of competency or certificate of validity or revalidation issued with the licence or required to be held in connection with the licence by the law of the country in which the licence is granted;
“Lifejacket” includes any device designed to support a person individually in or on the water;
“Log book” includes, in the case of an aircraft log book, engine log book, variable pitch propeller log book, or personal flying log book, a record kept either in a book, or by any other means approved by the CAA in the particular case;
“low visibility operations” means a Category II, IIIA or IIIB approach and landing or a take-off when the relevant runway visual range is less than 150 meters;
“LUC” refers to a light UAS operator certificate, which means a certificate issued to a UAS operator by the CAA under point UAS.LUC.050 of Part C of the Annex to the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation;
“Maintenance” means in relation to an aircraft any one or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification or defect rectification of an aircraft or component, with the exception of pre-flight inspection;
“Manoeuvring area” means that part of an aerodrome used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding the apron;
“Maximum approved passenger seating configuration” means—
(a) in the case of an aircraft to which article 83 applies the maximum approved passenger seating configuration specified in the operations manual of the aircraft; and
(b) in any other case, the maximum number of passengers which may be carried in the aircraft under and in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, its flight manual and this Order;
“Maximum operational passenger seating configuration” means the maximum passenger seating capacity of an individual aircraft, excluding crew seats, established for operational purposes and specified in the operations manual;
“Maximum take-off mass” means, in relation to an aircraft, the maximum total mass of the aircraft and its contents at which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the most favourable circumstances, in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force for the aircraft;
“Medical attendant” means a person carried on a flight for the purpose of attending to any person in the aircraft in need of medical attention, or to be available to attend to such a person;
“Medium intensity steady red light” means a red light which complies with the characteristics described for a medium intensity Type C light as specified in Volume 1 (Aerodrome Design and Operations) of Annex 14 (Fourth Edition July 2004) to the Chicago Convention;
“Microlight aeroplane” has the meaning given in paragraph 4;
“Microwave Landing System” means a ground-based radio system designed to transmit radio signals at super high frequency that allow the pilot of an aircraft to accurately determine the aircraft's position within a defined volume of airspace whilst carrying out an approach to land;
“Military aircraft” means—
(a) the naval, military or air force aircraft of any country;
(b) any aircraft being constructed for the naval, military or air force of any country under a contract entered into by the Secretary of State; and
(c) any aircraft for which there is in force a certificate issued by the Secretary of State that the aircraft is to be treated for the purposes of this Order as a military aircraft;
“Military rocket” means—
(a) any rocket being constructed for the naval, military or air force of any country under a contract entered into by the Secretary of State; and
(b) any rocket for which there is in force a certificate issued by the Secretary of State that the rocket is to be treated for the purposes of this Order as a military rocket;
“Minimum descent height” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the height in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual reference;
...
“Multi-crew co-operation” means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of co-operating members led by the pilot in command;
“munition of war” means any—
(a) weapon or ammunition; or
(b) article containing an explosive, noxious liquid or gas,
which is designed or made for use in warfare or against persons, including parts, whether components or accessories, for such weapon, ammunition or article;
“national aerodrome licence” means a licence granted under article 212;
“National air operator's certificate” means an air operator's certificate granted by the CAA under article 101(2);
“National airworthiness review certificate” means a certificate issued in accordance with article 52 or 53;
“National certificate of airworthiness” means either an expiring or a non-expiring certificate of airworthiness issued under article 38;
“national licensed aerodrome” means an aerodrome for which a national aerodrome licence is in force;
“National permit to fly” means a permit to fly issued under article 40;
“Nautical mile” means the International Nautical Mile, that is to say, a distance of 1852 metres;
“Night” means the time from half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise (both times inclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;
“non-commercial flight” means a flight which is not a commercial operation flight, a public transport flight or a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport;
...
“ non-Part-21 aircraft”, except in Part 5, means an aircraft which is not required by the Basic ... Regulation and any regulations made in accordance with that Regulation to hold a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness, a Part-21 restricted certificate of airworthiness or a Part-21 permit to fly; and “non-Part-21 balloon”, “non-Part-21 glider” and “non-Part-21 kite” are to be construed accordingly;
...
“Non-expiring national certificate of airworthiness” means a national certificate of airworthiness that, subject to articles 39 and 253, remains valid for an unlimited duration provided the aircraft remains registered in the United Kingdom;
“Non-precision approach” means an instrument approach using non-visual aids for guidance in azimuth or elevation but which is not a precision approach;
“North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace” means the airspace prescribed as such;
“North Atlantic Shanwick Oceanic Control Area” means the airspace notified as such;
“Notified” means set out with the authority of the CAA in a document published by or under an arrangement entered into with the CAA and entitled “United Kingdom Notam” or “United Kingdom Aeronautical Information Publication” and for the time being in force;
“Notified aerodrome” means an aerodrome which is notified for the purposes of rule 11 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015;
“Notified operating hours” means the times notified for an aerodrome during which rule 11 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015 applies;
“NPPL General Skill test” means a demonstration of skill for issue of a National Private Pilot's Licence and any rating or certificate thereto, including such oral examination as the examiner may require;
“Obstacle limitation surfaces” has the same meaning as in CAA publication CAP 168 entitled “Licensing of aerodromes”... ;
“Occurrence” means an operational interruption, defect, fault or other irregular circumstance that has or may have influenced flight safety and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident as those terms are defined in regulation 2 of the Civil Aviation (Investigation of Air Accidents and Incidents) Regulations 1996 ;
“Omnidirectional departure” means a departure procedure that is designed on the basis that an aircraft maintains the runway direction until it reaches such a height that it can make a turn in any direction and maintain the obstacle clearance prescribed by the procedure;
“Occurrence Reporting Regulation” means Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3rd April 2014 on the reporting, analysis and follow-up of occurrences in civil aviation, amending Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 1321/2007 and (EC) No 1330/2007 , as amended from time to time;
“Offshore service” means an air traffic control service for any aircraft flying to or from offshore oil and gas installations and for other aircraft operating in the vicinity of these aircraft in airspace specified for this purpose in the manual of air traffic services;
“Operating staff” means the servants and agents employed by an operator of an aircraft, whether or not as members of the crew, to ensure that flights of the aircraft are conducted in a safe manner, and includes an operator who himself performs those functions;
“Operator” has the meaning assigned to it by article 4;
“Parascending parachute” means a parachute which is towed by cable in such a manner as to cause it to ascend;
“Part 21” means the Annex so entitled to the ... Aircraft Certification Regulation, as amended;
“Part 66” means Annex III so entitled to the ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation;
“Part 145” means Annex II so entitled to the ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation;
“Part 147” means Annex IV so entitled to the ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation;
“Part-ARO” means Annex II so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“Part-BFCL licence” means a flight crew licence which complies with the requirements of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to the Balloon Regulation;
“Part-CAT” means Annex IV so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“Part-CAT aeroplane” means an aeroplane operated by a Part-CAT operator;
“Part-CAT aircraft” means an aircraft operated by a Part-CAT operator;
“Part-CAT air operator certificate” means an air operator certificate issued under Part-ARO authorising the holder to operate commercial air transport operations;
“Part-CAT helicopter” means a helicopter operated by a Part-CAT operator;
“Part-CAT operator” means an operator that is required to operate under and in accordance with Part-CAT;
“Part-FCL” means Annex I so entitled to the ... Aircrew Regulation;
“Part-FCL licence” means a flight crew licence granted under Part-FCL by the CAA;
“Part M” means Annex I so entitled to the ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation as amended;
“Part-MED” means Annex IV so entitled to the ... Aircrew Regulation;
“Part-NCC” means Annex VI so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“Part-NCO” means Annex VII so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“Part-ORO” means Annex III so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“Part-SFCL licence” has the same meaning as provided by article 2(12) of the Sailplane Regulation;
“Part-SPA” means Annex V so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“Part-SPO” means Annex VIII so entitled to the ... Air Operations Regulation;
“parts and appliances” means any—
(a) instrument;
(b) equipment;
(c) mechanism;
(d) part;
(e) apparatus;
(f) appurtenance;
(g) software or accessory; or
(h) communications equipment,
that is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft in flight, and includes parts of an airframe, engine or propeller, or equipment used to manoeuvre the aircraft from the ground;
“Passenger” means a person other than a member of the crew;
“Passenger A to B commercial air transport” means a flight for the purpose of carriage of passengers by commercial air transport by an aircraft starting and ending at different places;
“Performance Class 1 operations” means flights where, in the event of the failure of a power unit, the helicopter will be able to safely continue the flight and land at an appropriate landing area unless the power unit failure recognition occurs during take-off at or before reaching the take-off decision point in which case the helicopter will be able to safely land back within the area from which it has taken off;
“Performance Class 2 operations” means flights where, in the event of the failure of a power unit, the helicopter will be able to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area or, where the failure occurs at a point during the take-off manoeuvre or the landing manoeuvre when it cannot do so, the helicopter will be able to carry out a forced landing;
“Performance Class 3 operations” means flights where, in the event of the failure of a power unit at any time during the flight, the helicopter will be required to carry out a forced landing;
“Performance class B aeroplane” means an aeroplane powered by propeller engines with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of nine or fewer and a maximum take-off mass of 5,700 kg or less;
“Period of duty” means the period between the commencement and end of a shift during which an air traffic controller performs, or could be called on to perform, any of the functions specified in a rating included in the controller's licence;
“pilot in command”, in relation to an aircraft, means the pilot designated by the operator as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of its flight, without being under the direction of any other pilot in the aircraft;
“Police air operator's certificate” means a certificate granted by the CAA under article 134(5);
“Police authority” means a Chief Officer of police for any area of England or Wales, the Chief Constable of Police Scotland and the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland;
“Police officer” means any person who is a member of a police force or of the Police Service of Northern Ireland (including, for the avoidance of doubt, the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve), and any special constable;
“Pre-flight inspection” means the inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight;
“Precision approach” means an instrument approach using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation;
“Pressurised aircraft” means an aircraft provided with means of maintaining in any compartment a pressure greater than that of the surrounding atmosphere;
“Private aircraft” means an aircraft which is not a commercial operation aircraft, a public transport aircraft or a commercial air transport aircraft;
“product” means an aircraft, engine or propeller;
“Proficiency check” means a demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew a rating, including such oral examination as the examiner may require;
“Public electronic communications network” has the same meaning as in section 151 of the Communications Act 2003 ;
“Public transport” has the meaning assigned to it by article 6, and the expression “public transport operation” should be construed accordingly;
“Public transport aircraft” means an aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly, for the purpose of public transport;
“Public transport flight” means a flight for the purpose of public transport;
“Public use licence” has the meaning assigned to it by article 214(3);
“rating” means a statement entered on a licence setting out privileges, special conditions or limitations pertaining thereto;
“Record” has the same meaning as in section 81(6) of the Transport Act 2000;
“Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace” means any airspace between flight level 290 and flight level 410 inclusive which has been notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority as being airspace within which a vertical separation minimum of 1,000 feet or 300 metres must be applied;
“Relevant overseas territory” means any colony and any country or place outside Her Majesty's dominions in which for the time being Her Majesty has jurisdiction;
remote pilot” means an individual responsible for safely conducting the flight of an unmanned aircraft by operating its flight controls, either manually or, when the unmanned aircraft flies automatically, by monitoring its course and remaining able to intervene and change the course at any time;
“Replacement” in relation to any part of an aircraft or its equipment—
(a) includes the removal and replacement of that part whether or not by the same part, and whether or not any work is done on it; but
(b) does not include the removal and replacement of a part which is designed to be removable solely for the purpose of enabling another part to be inspected, repaired, removed or replaced or cargo to be loaded;
“Required Navigation Performance airspace” means airspace which has been notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the competent authority for the airspace as requiring specified navigation performance capabilities to be met by aircraft flying within it;
“Rocket” means a device which is propelled by ejecting expanding gases generated in its motor from self contained propellant and which is not dependent on the intake of outside substances and includes any part of the device intended to become separated during operation;
“Runway visual range” in relation to a runway means the distance in the direction of take-off or landing over which the runway lights or surface markings may be seen from the touchdown zone as calculated by either human observation or instruments in—
(a) the vicinity of the touchdown zone; or
(b) if this is not reasonably practicable, in the vicinity of the midpoint of the runway,
and the distance, if any, communicated to the pilot in command of an aircraft by or on behalf of the person in charge of the aerodrome as being the runway visual range must be taken to be the runway visual range for the time being;
“Safety management system” means a systematic approach to managing safety including the necessary organisational structure, accountabilities, policies and procedures;
“Sailplane Regulation” means Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 of 14 December 2018 laying down detailed rules for the operation of sailplanes as well as for the flight crew licensing for sailplanes pursuant to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council, as amended from time to time;
“Scheduled journey” means one of a series of journeys which are undertaken between the same two places and which together amount to a systematic service;
“Seaplane” has the same meaning as in section 97 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982;
“Sector” means a part of a control area or part of a flight information region or upper region;
“Self-launching motor glider” means an aircraft with the characteristics of a non-power-driven glider, which is fitted with one or more power units and which is designed or intended to take off under its own power;
“Self-propelled hang-glider” means an aircraft comprising an aerofoil wing and a mechanical propulsion device which—
(a) is foot launched;
(b) has a stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration not exceeding 35 knots calibrated airspeed; and
(c) has a maximum unladen weight, including full fuel, of 70 kg;
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(j)
“Self-sustaining glider” means an aircraft with the characteristics of a non-power-driven glider which is fitted with one or more power units capable of sustaining the aircraft in flight but which is not designed or intended to take off under its own power;
“SERA” means the Annex to the Standardised European Rules of the Air Regulation;
“Service Provision Regulation” means Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10th March 2004 on the provision of air navigation services in the single European sky , as amended from time to time;
“Single-seat deregulated aeroplane” means a non-Part 21 aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, which is designed to carry not more than one person, which has—
(a) a maximum take-off mass not exceeding—
(i) 300kg for a landplane (or 390kg for a landplane of which at least 51% was built by an amateur, or non-profit making association of amateurs (“the association”), for the amateur or the association’s own purposes and without any commercial objective, in respect of which a permit to fly issued by the CAA was in force prior to 1st January 2003);
(ii) 330kg for an amphibian or floatplane; or
(iii) 315kg for a landplane equipped with an airframe mounted total recovery parachute system; and
(b) a stalling speed, or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration, at the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 35 knots calibrated airspeed.
“SLMG” means a self-launching motor glider;
“Small balloon” means a balloon of not more than two metres in any linear dimension at any stage of its flight, including any basket or other equipment attached to the balloon;
“Small rocket” means a rocket of which the total impulse of the motor or combination of motors is not more than 10,240 Newton-seconds;
...
“solo flight” means a flight during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft;
“Special tasks service” means an air traffic control service—
(a) for any aircraft flying for the purposes of research and development of aircraft, aircraft equipment or aircraft systems which is not flying in accordance with normal aviation practice; and
(b) for other aircraft in the vicinity of any such aircraft;
“Special VFR flight” means a flight conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules cleared by an air traffic control unit to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below Visual Meteorological Conditions;
“sporting weapon” means any—
(a) weapon or ammunition; or
(b) article containing an explosive, noxious liquid or gas,
which is not a munition of war, including parts, whether components or accessories, for such weapon, ammunition or article;
“SSEA” means a simple single engine aeroplane, being a single engine piston aeroplane with a maximum take-off weight authorised of not more than 2,000kg and which is not a microlight aeroplane or a SLMG;;
“Standard instrument arrival” means an arrival route for use by an aircraft flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules which links a notified significant point with a point from which an instrument approach procedure may be commenced;
“Standard instrument departure” means a departure route for use by an aircraft flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules which links an aerodrome or a specific runway of an aerodrome with a notified significant point from which the flight may safely continue and which is wholly contained within controlled airspace;
“Standardised European Rules of the Air Regulation” means Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26th September 2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation and amending Implementing Regulation (EU) No 1035/2011 and Regulations (EC) No 1265/2007, (EC) No 1794/2006, (EC) No 730/2006, (EC) No 1033/2006 and (EU) No 255/2010 , as amended from time to time;
“State aircraft” means an aircraft carrying out military, customs, police, search and rescue, fire-fighting, coastguard or similar activities or services;
“State of design” means the State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the type design of an aircraft;
“State of the operator” means the State in which the operator of an aircraft has its principal place of business or, if it has no such place of business, its permanent residence, in circumstances where—
(a) that aircraft is registered in another Contracting State;
(b) the operator is operating that aircraft under an agreement for its lease, charter or inter-change or any similar arrangement;
(c) the State in which that aircraft is registered has, by agreement with the State in which the operator of the aircraft has its principal place of business or, if it has no such place of business, its permanent residence, agreed to transfer to it its functions and duties as State of registry for that aircraft in relation to, in the case of article 33(1), airworthiness, in the case of article 77(1), aircraft radio equipment, in the case of article 148, flight crew licensing or, in the case of article 79, radio licensing; and
(d) the agreement has been registered with the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organisation or the existence and scope of the agreement have been directly communicated to the CAA;
...
“Take-off decision point” means the latest point in the take-off at which, following recognition of a power unit failure, the helicopter will be able to carry out a rejected take-off;
“Technical Harmonisation Regulation” means Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91 of 16th December 1991 on the harmonisation of technical requirements and administrative procedures in the field of civil aviation, as amended;
“Technical log” means a record containing the information specified in paragraph M.A.306 of Part M;
“Tethered” , in relation to a balloon, means flight by a controllable balloon throughout which it is flown within limits imposed by a restraining device which attaches the balloon to the surface;
“tethered small unmanned aircraft” means an unmanned aircraft—
(a) having a MTOM, within the meaning of Article 2 of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation, of not more than 1kg; and
(b) which is flown within limits imposed by a restraining device which attaches the aircraft to the surface or to a person on the surface;
“TMG” means a touring motor glider, being an aircraft with the characteristics of a non-power-driven glider which—
(a) has one or more integrally mounted, non-retractable power units;
(b) has one or more non-retractable propellers; and
(c) is designed or intended to take off under its own power;
“Type rating” means a rating that entitles the holder of a pilot licence to act as pilot of an aircraft of the type specified in the rating and the holder of a flight engineer's licence to act as flight engineer in an aircraft of the type specified in the rating;
“UAS” refers to an unmanned aircraft system, and means an unmanned aircraft and the equipment to control it remotely;
“UAS operator” means any person operating or intending to operate one or more UAS;
“Uncontrollable balloon” means a balloon which is not a small balloon and which is not capable of free controlled flight;
“UK military AIP” means the document published by or on behalf of the Secretary of State entitled “United Kingdom Military Aeronautical Information Publication” and for the time being in force;
“United Kingdom licence” means a licence included in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Schedule 8;
“unmanned aircraft” means any aircraft operating or designed to operate autonomously or to be piloted remotely without a pilot on board;
“Unmanned Aircraft Delegated Regulation” means Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/945 of 12 March 2019 on unmanned aircraft systems and on third-country operators of unmanned aircraft systems;
“Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation” means Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/947 of 24 May 2019 on the rules and procedures for the operation of unmanned aircraft;
“unmanned aircraft subject to certification” means any unmanned aircraft forming part of a UAS required to be certified under Article 40(1)(a), (b) or (c) of the Unmanned Aircraft Delegated Regulation;
“Valuable consideration” means any right, interest, profit or benefit, forbearance, detriment, loss or responsibility accruing, given, suffered or undertaken under an agreement, which is of more than a nominal nature;
“Visiting force” means any such body, contingent or detachment of the forces of any country as is a visiting force for the purposes of the Visiting Forces Act 1952 —
(a) which apply to that country by virtue of paragraph (a) of section 1(1) of that Act; or
(b) which from time to time apply to that country by virtue of paragraph (b) of section 1(1) and of any Order in Council made or hereafter to be made under section 1 designating that country for the purposes of that Act following section 1(2) of that Act;
“Visual Flight Rules” means visual flight rules prescribed by Section 5 of SERA;
“Visual Meteorological Conditions” means weather permitting flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules;
“With the surface in sight” means with the flight crew being able to see sufficient surface features or surface illumination to enable the flight crew to maintain the aircraft in a desired attitude without reference to any flight instrument and “when the surface is not in sight” is to be construed accordingly.
S.I. 2015/912.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(a)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(b)
O.J. No. L 336, 20.12.2011, p.20.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(a)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (13.4.2022) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2022 (S.I. 2022/321), arts. 1(1), 7
1981 c.61.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(b)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(d)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(d)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Treaty Series No. 8 (1953); Cmd 8742.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(c)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(d)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(e) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
1974 c.39.
Words in Sch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 9(a)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(e)
Words in Sch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 9(b)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(c)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(g) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(h) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
O.J. No. L 44, 14.02.2014, p.1.
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(j) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
O.J. No. L 296, 25.10.2012, p.1.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(f)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(k) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(l)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(l)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 9(c)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(l)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(m) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
O.J. No. L 224, 21.08.2012, p.1.
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(n) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
O.J. No. L 311, 25.11.2011, p.1.
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(o)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(o)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(p) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(q) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
O.J. No. L 362, 17.12.2014, p.1.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(r) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(s)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(s)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(t)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(t)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(u)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(u)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(iv) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
1995 c.21.
1964 c.5.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 5(a)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(a) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 10(a)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(g)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(v) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(iv) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(v) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(x) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(h)
Issue 10, dated 7th March 2014, was published by The Stationery Office on behalf of the CAA, under ISBN 9780117928619. It is also available online for download at http://www.caa.co.uk/CAP168
S.I. 1996/2798.
O.J. No. L 122, 24.04.2014, p.18.
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(y) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(d)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(z) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(e)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(i)
2003 c.21.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(b) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(f)
O.J. No. L 96, 31.03.2004, p.10.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 10(b)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(c) (with art. 13)
O.J. No. L 281, 13.10.2012, p.1.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(d) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(e) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(f) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(g) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 5(b)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 15(g)
Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(h) (with art. 13)
1952 c.67.
2. References in this Order to—
(a) a certificate of airworthiness include both a national certificate of airworthiness and a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness unless otherwise stated;
Words in Sch. 1 para. 2(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(3)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
(b) an aircraft, aeroplane, powered lift tilt rotor aircraft, SLMG, helicopter, gyroplane, airship, balloon or kite include both Part-21 and non-Part-21 examples of the same unless otherwise stated.
Words in Sch. 1 para. 2(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(3)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
3. The expressions appearing in the “Classification of Aircraft” in Part 1 of Schedule 4 have the meanings assigned to them in that Part.
4. (1) “Microlight aeroplane” means an aircraft described in sub-paragraph (2), (3), (4) or (5).
(2) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is a non-Part 21 aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, that is designed to carry not more than two persons, which—
(a) has a stalling speed, or maximum steady flight speed in the landing configuration, at the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 35 knots calibrated airspeed; and
(b) has a maximum take-off mass not exceeding—
(i) 450kg for a two-seat landplane;
(ii) 495kg for a two-seat amphibian or floatplane; or
(iii) 475kg for a two-seat landplane equipped with an airframe mounted total recovery parachute system.
(3) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is a non-Part 21 aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, that is designed to carry not more than two persons, which—
(a) is of an approved design;
(b) either has, or has been subsequently modified to have, a stalling speed, or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration, at the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 45 knots calibrated airspeed; and
(c) either has, or has been subsequently modified to have, a maximum take-off mass not exceeding—
(i) 600kg for a landplane; or
(ii) 650kg for an amphibian or floatplane.
(4) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is a single-seat deregulated aeroplane.
(5) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is being flown, or is intended to be flown, for the purpose of a flight test to establish that it complies with the requirements of sub-paragraph (2), (3) or (4).
(6) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (3)(a), an “approved design” is a design which is approved by the CAA for the purposes of the issue of a permit to fly under article 40.
Sch. 1 para. 4 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 10(c)

SCHEDULE 2 PARTS OF STRAITS SPECIFIED IN CONNECTION WITH THE FLIGHT OF AIRCRAFT IN TRANSIT OVER UNITED KINGDOM TERRITORIAL WATERS
Article 18(1)
1. The parts of straits specified in paragraph 2 are specified for the purposes of article 18(1).
2. (1) In the Straits of Dover, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—
(a) to the south of a rhumb line joining position 51°08'23” north latitude: 1°23'00” east longitude and position 51°22'41” north latitude: 1°50'06” east longitude; and
(b) to the east of a rhumb line joining position 50°54'33” north latitude: 0°58'05” east longitude and position 50°43'15” north latitude: 0°51'39” east longitude.
(2) In the North Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—
(a) to the north of a rhumb line joining position 54°13'30” north latitude: 5°39'28” west longitude and position 54°09'02” north latitude: 5°18'07” west longitude;
(b) to the west of a rhumb line joining position 54°26'02” north latitude: 4°51'37” west longitude and position 54°38'01” north latitude: 4°51'16” west longitude; and
(c) to the east of a rhumb line joining—
(i) position 55°40'24” north latitude: 6°30'59” west longitude and position 55°29'24” north latitude: 6°40'31” west longitude;
(ii) position 55°24'54” north latitude: 6°44'33” west longitude and position 55°10'15” north latitude: 6°44'33” west longitude.
(3) In the Fair Isle Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—
(a) to the north of a rhumb line joining position 59°10'54” north latitude: 2°01'32” west longitude and position 59°33'27” north latitude: 2°38'35” west longitude; and
(b) to the south of a rhumb line joining position 59°51'06” north latitude: 0°52'10” west longitude and position 59°51'06” north latitude: 1°46'36” west longitude.

SCHEDULE 3 A, B AND E CONDITIONS AND CATEGORIES OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS
Articles 31(2) and 38(5)

PART 1 A, B and E Conditions

CHAPTER 1 A Conditions
1. A non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 or 3 subject to the conditions contained in paragraphs 4 to 7 when—
(a) it does not have a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom;
(b) the certificate of airworthiness issued under article 38 for the aircraft has ceased to be in force by virtue of any of the matters specified in article 39;
(c) it has previously had a permit to fly but that permit has ceased to be in force by virtue of any of the matters specified in article 41; or
(d) is of a design which has previously been approved by the CAA, or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA, as being compliant with a standard accepted by the CAA as appropriate for the issue of a national permit to fly.
Word in Sch. 3 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 79(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
2. The purposes in the case of an aircraft falling within sub-paragraph 1(a) are that the aircraft may fly only so as to enable it to—
(a) qualify for the issue or renewal of a certificate of airworthiness or a national permit to fly after an application has been made for such issue or renewal, or carry out a functional check of a previously approved modification of the aircraft;
(b) proceed to or from a place at which any inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of, or the installation of equipment in, the aircraft is to take place or has taken place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), after any relevant application has been made, or at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of, the aircraft is to be undertaken; or
(c) proceed to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be or has been stored.
3. The purposes in the case of an aircraft falling within sub-paragraph 1(b), (c) or (d) are that the aircraft may fly only so as to enable it to—
(a) proceed to a place at which any maintenance or inspection required by article 39(1)(b) or article 41(1)(b) is to take place; or
(b) proceed to a place at which any maintenance, inspection or modification required by article 39(1)(c), (d) or (e) or article 41(1)(a) is to take place and for which flight the CAA has given permission in writing; or
(c) carry out a functional check, test or in-flight adjustment in connection with the carrying out in a manner approved by the CAA of any overhaul, repair, previously approved modification, inspection or maintenance required by article 39 or article 41.
4. The aircraft, including any modifications, must be of a design which previously has been approved by the CAA, or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA, as being compliant with a standard accepted by the CAA as appropriate for the issue of a national certificate of airworthiness.
5. The aircraft and its engines must be certified as fit for flight by—
(a) in the case of an aircraft referred to in paragraph 1(c) or (d), a person authorised by an organisation approved for the purpose by the CAA, and in accordance with that approval; and
(b) in all other cases—
(i) the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted under this Order, being a licence which entitles the holder to issue that certificate; or
(ii) a person approved by the CAA for the purpose of issuing certificates under this condition, and in accordance with that approval.
6. The aircraft must carry the minimum flight crew specified—
(a) in the case of an aircraft referred to in paragraph 1(c) or (d), in any relevant document; and
(b) in all other cases, in any certificate of airworthiness or flight manual which has previously been in force under this Order for the aircraft, or is or has previously been in force for any other aircraft of identical design.
7. The aircraft must not carry any persons or cargo except persons performing duties in the aircraft in connection with the flight or persons who are carried in the aircraft to perform duties in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph 2 or 3.
8. For the purpose of this Schedule, “a previously approved modification” means a modification which has previously been approved by the CAA or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA for that aircraft or another aircraft of the same type.

CHAPTER 2 B Conditions
1. A non-Part-21 aircraft may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 subject to the conditions set out in paragraphs 3 to 6 whether or not it is registered in accordance with article 24(1) when there is not in force—
(a) in the case of an aircraft which is so registered, a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; or
(b) in the case of an aircraft which is not so registered, either a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom or a permit to fly issued by the CAA for that aircraft.
Word in Sch. 3 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 79(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
2. The purposes referred to in paragraph 1 are—
(a) experimenting with or testing the aircraft (including any engines installed on the aircraft) or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft;
(b) enabling the aircraft to qualify for the issue or validation of a certificate of airworthiness or the approval of a modification of the aircraft or the issue of a permit to fly;
(c) demonstrating and displaying the aircraft, any engines installed on the aircraft or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft with a view to its sale or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment;
(d) demonstrating and displaying the aircraft to employees of the operator;
(e) the giving of flying training to or the testing of flight crew employed by the operator or the training or testing of other persons employed by the operator and who are carried or are intended to be carried under sub-paragraph 6(a);
(f) proceeding to or from a place at which any experiment, inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of the aircraft, the installation of equipment in the aircraft, demonstration, display or training is to take place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e); or
(g) proceeding to or from a place at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of the aircraft is to be undertaken.
3. The flight must be operated by a person approved by the CAA for the purposes of these conditions and subject to any additional conditions which may be specified in such an approval.
4. If not registered in the United Kingdom—
(a) the aircraft must be marked in a manner approved by the CAA for the purposes of these conditions; and
(b) articles 67, 79, 226, 229 and 235 must be complied with in relation to the aircraft as if it were registered in the United Kingdom.
5. No person may act as pilot in command of the aircraft except a person approved for the purpose by the CAA.
6. The aircraft must not carry any cargo, or any persons other than the flight crew except the following—
(a) persons employed by the operator who during the flight carry out duties or are tested or receive training in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph 2;
(b) persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft for carrying out during the flight duties in connection with a purpose so specified;
(c) persons approved by the CAA under article 268 as qualified to supply reports for the purposes of article 38;
(d) persons other than those carried under the preceding provisions of this paragraph who are carried in the aircraft in order to carry out a technical evaluation of the aircraft or its operation;
(e) cargo which comprises equipment carried in connection with a purpose specified in sub-paragraph 2(f); or
(f) persons employed by the operator or persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft in connection with a purpose specified in sub-paragraph 2(f) which persons have duties in connection with that purpose.

CHAPTER 3 E Conditions
1. Subject to the conditions set out in paragraph 3, a non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom of not more than 2,000kg maximum take-off mass and which is designed to be flown by a crew of at least one pilot may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 when there is in force neither—
(a) a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom; nor
(b) a permit to fly.
Word in Sch. 3 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 79(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
2. The purposes referred to in paragraph 1 are—
(a) experimenting with or testing the aircraft (including any engines installed on the aircraft) or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft;
(b) demonstrating the aircraft, any engines installed on the aircraft or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft in support of their development or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment.
3. (1) The aircraft may only fly if any certificate of airworthiness or permit to fly held in respect of the aircraft is suspended.
(2) The aircraft may only fly in accordance with a test programme, not exceeding a period of 12 months, in respect of which an E Conditions Declaration has been made by an E Conditions competent person and submitted to the CAA.
(3) The aircraft must not fly in accordance with the test programme until the E Conditions competent person has received a written acknowledgement from the CAA of its receipt of the E Conditions Declaration.
(4) Flight of the aircraft may be subject to any additional conditions which may be specified by the E Conditions competent person.
(5) The aircraft must not fly if the E Conditions competent person is not satisfied that all risks in respect of the flight test programme continue to have been mitigated to an acceptable level and that the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable.
(6) No person may act as pilot in command of the aircraft except a person who has been judged by the E Conditions competent person to be appropriately qualified and trained for the purpose.
(7) The aircraft must not carry any cargo, or any persons other than the pilot except any additional person determined by the E Conditions competent person to be necessary to achieve the purpose of the flight as specified in paragraph 2;
(8) The words “UK EXPERIMENTAL” must be displayed on the aircraft near each entrance to the cabin or cockpit in letters not less than 5 centimetres nor more than 15 centimetres in height.
(9) A placard must be affixed to the aircraft and displayed within sight of all occupants of the aircraft which must be worded as follows—
Occupant Warning
This UK registered Experimental Aircraft has not been approved and may only be flown by permission granted under ANO E Conditions.
4. An E Conditions Declaration must—
(a) be signed by an E Conditions competent person;
(b) specify the aircraft in respect of which it is issued;
(c) specify the flight test programme in respect of which it is issued, including the start and finish dates of the programme;
(d) set out the specified purposes for which the aircraft may fly;
(e) confirm that the flight test programme will be conducted in accordance with the Conditions of Flight at paragraph 3;
(f) declare that the E Conditions competent person has obtained the consent of the registered owner of the aircraft—
(i) to request the suspension of any certificate of airworthiness or permit to fly granted in respect of the aircraft; and
(ii) for the aircraft to undertake the flight test programme;
(g) request the suspension of any certificate of airworthiness or permit to fly held in respect of the aircraft;
(h) declare that if the ownership of the aircraft changes during the flight test programme, the E Conditions competent person will not permit a flight to take place until the consent of the new aircraft owner for the aircraft to continue the flight test programme has been obtained;
(i) declare that, before the flight test programme commences, the E Conditions competent person will undertake a risk assessment and must be satisfied that—
(i) all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level; and
(ii) in particular, the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable;
(j) declare that, throughout the flight test programme, the E Conditions competent person will make such changes to the risk assessment and dossier of information as appear appropriate in light of the information gathered in connection with that programme;
(k) declare that the E Conditions competent person will—
(i) keep under review the risks in respect of the flight test programme; and
(ii) not permit a flight to take place in the event that the E Conditions competent person ceases to be satisfied that—
(aa) all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level; and
(bb) in particular, the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable.
5. (1) An E Conditions competent person means a person who satisfies the requirements of sub-paragraph (2) or (3).
(2) A person who has been authorised as a competent person by an E Conditions approved person, and whose authorisation has not been withdrawn, satisfies the requirements of this sub-paragraph.
(3) A person who—
(a) is a Member or Fellow of the Royal Aeronautical Society (“the RAeS”) and a Chartered Engineer registered with the Engineering Council via the RAeS; and
(b) has notified the RAeS of that person's intention to act as an E Conditions competent person and has not withdrawn that notification;
satisfies the requirements of this sub-paragraph.
(4) The CAA may approve a person to authorise a competent person for the purposes of E Conditions and in this Order “E Conditions approved person” means a person so approved.
6. (1) An E Conditions competent person is entitled to make an E Conditions Declaration.
(2) The E Conditions competent person must—
(a) before the flight test programme commences—
(i) undertake a risk assessment;
(ii) be satisfied that all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level;
(iii) in particular be satisfied that the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is acceptable;
(iv) keep a dossier of information about the aircraft and the flight test programme, including a record of the risk assessment, and retain the dossier for three years after final flight under the flight test programme; and
(b) throughout the flight test programme—
(i) make such changes to the risk assessment and dossier of information as appear appropriate in light of the information gathered in connection with that programme;
(ii) not permit a flight to take place unless that person remains satisfied that all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level and that the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable.
(3) An E Conditions competent person must produce the dossier of information to an authorised person within a reasonable time after being requested to do so.
7. The flight test programme is deemed to be completed if the person who has submitted an E Conditions Declaration—
(a) ceases to be an E Conditions competent person;
(b) notifies the CAA that the flight test programme has been finished or terminated;
(c) is no longer discharging the obligations set out in the E Conditions Declaration; or
(d) the declared finish date of the flight test programme has been reached.
8. The CAA must issue a written acknowledgement of receipt in respect of an E Conditions Declaration submitted to it unless, in its reasonable opinion, the E Conditions Declaration is repetitive.

PART 2 Categories of Certificate of Airworthiness and Purposes for which Aircraft May Fly
Category of certificate of airworthiness	Purposes for which the aircraft may fly
Standard	Any purpose
Special Category	Any purpose, other than commercial air transport, specified in the certificate of airworthiness

SCHEDULE 4 CLASSIFICATION AND MARKING OF AIRCRAFT
Arts. 27(1)(b) & 32(2) & para. 3 of Schedule 1

PART 1 Classification of aircraft
1. (1) Aircraft are to be classified in accordance with the table.
Table
Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
(1) Lighter than air aircraft	(a) Non-power driven	(i) Free Balloon
		(ii) Captive Balloon
	(b) Power driven	(i) Airship
(2) Heavier than air aircraft	(a) Non-power driven	(i) Glider
		(ii) Kite
	(b) Power driven flying machines	(i) Aeroplane (Landplane)
		(ii) Aeroplane (Seaplane)
		(iii) Aeroplane (Amphibian)
		(iv) Aeroplane (Self-launching Motor Glider)
		(v) Powered Lift (Tilt Rotor)
		(vi) Rotorcraft— (aa) Helicopter; (bb) Gyroplane.
(2) An aircraft which is intended to be operated with no pilot on board is to be further classified as unmanned.
(3) Unmanned aircraft include unmanned free balloons and remotely piloted aircraft.

PART 2 Marking of aircraft

General
1. (1) The nationality mark of the aircraft is the capital letter “G” in Roman character.
(2) The registration mark is a group of four capital letters in Roman character assigned by the CAA on the registration of the aircraft.
(3) The letters must be without ornamentation.
(4) A hyphen must be placed between the nationality mark and the registration mark.
(5) The nationality and registration marks must be displayed to the best advantage, taking into consideration the constructional features of the aircraft and must always be kept clean and visible.
(6) The letters constituting each group of marks must—
(a) be of equal height; and
(b) together with the hyphen, all be of the same single colour which must clearly contrast with the background on which they appear.
(7) The nationality and registration marks must also be inscribed on a fire-proof metal plate affixed in a prominent position—
(a) in the case of a microlight aeroplane, either on the fuselage or car or on the wing;
(b) in the case of a balloon, on the basket or envelope;
(c) in the case of a remotely piloted aircraft, secured in a prominent position near the main entrance or compartment, or affixed conspicuously to the exterior of the aircraft if there is no main entrance or compartment; or
(d) in the case of any other aircraft on the fuselage or car.
(8) The nationality and registration marks must be painted on the aircraft, or affixed to the aircraft by any other means ensuring a similar degree of permanence, in the manner specified in paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 of this Part.

Position and size of marks – heavier than air aircraft
2. (1) The position and size of marks on heavier than air aircraft (excluding kites) must be as specified in this paragraph.
(2) On such aircraft having a fixed wing surface—
(a) the marks must appear on the lower horizontal surface of the wing structure and on the port wing unless they extend across the whole surface of both wings;
(b) so far as is possible the marks must be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings;
(c) the tops of the letters must be towards the leading edge of the wing;
(d) the height of the letters must be—
(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii), at least 50 centimetres;
(ii) if the wings are not large enough for the marks to be 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances.
(3) On the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and vertical tail surfaces of such aircraft—
(a) the marks must also appear either—
(i) on each side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure), and must, in the case of fixed wing aircraft be located between the wings and the horizontal tail surface; or
(ii) on the vertical tail surfaces;
(b) when located on a single vertical tail surface, the marks must appear on both sides;
(c) when located on multi-vertical tail surfaces, the marks must appear on the outboard sides of the outer-surfaces;
(d) subject to sub-paragraphs (f) and (g), the height of the letters constituting each group of marks must be at least 30 centimetres;
(e) if one of the surfaces authorised for displaying the required marks is large enough for those marks to be 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (g)) and the other is not, marks of 30 centimetres in height must be placed on the largest authorised surface;
(f) if neither authorised surface is large enough for marks of 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (g)), marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances must be displayed on the larger of the two authorised surfaces;
(g) marks on the vertical tail surfaces must be such as to leave a margin of at least five centimetres along each side of the vertical tail surface.
(4) On rotary wing aircraft where owing to the structure of the aircraft the greatest height practicable for the marks on the side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure) is less than 30 centimetres—
(a) the marks must also appear on the lower surface of the fuselage as close to the line of symmetry as practicable;
(b) they must be placed with the tops of the letters towards the nose;
(c) the height of the letters constituting each group of marks must be—
(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii), at least 50 centimetres; or
(ii) if the lower surface of the fuselage is not large enough for the marks to be of 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances.
(5) Wherever in this paragraph marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances are required, that height must be such as is consistent with compliance with paragraph 4 of this Part.

Position and size of marks – airships and free balloons
3. (1) The position and size of marks on airships and free balloons must be as specified in this paragraph.
(2) In the case of airships the marks must be—
(a) placed on each side of the airship; and
(b) placed horizontally either on the hull near the maximum cross-section of the airship or on the lower vertical stabiliser.
(3) In the case of free balloons, the marks must be in two places on diametrically opposite sides of the balloon.
(4) In the case of both airships and free balloons—
(a) the side marks must be so placed as to be visible from the sides and from the ground; and
(b) the height of the letters must be at least 50 centimetres.

Width, spacing and thickness of marks
4. (1) For the purposes of this paragraph—
(a) “standard letter” means any letter other than the letters I, M and W;
(b) the width of each standard letter and the length of the hyphen between the nationality mark and the registration mark must be two thirds of the height of a letter;
(c) the width of the letters M and W must be neither less than two thirds of their height nor more than their height; and
(d) the width of the letter I must be one sixth of the height of the letter.
(2) The thickness of the lines comprising each letter and hyphen must be one sixth of the height of the letters forming the marks.
(3) Each letter and hyphen must be separated from the letter or hyphen which it immediately precedes or follows by a space equal to—
(a) either one quarter or one half of the width of a standard letter; and
(b) every other such space within the marks.

SCHEDULE 5 EQUIPMENT FOR NON-PART-21 AIRCRAFT ON NON-COMMERCIAL AND COMMERCIAL OPERATIONS AND MARKING OF BREAK-IN AREAS
Articles 44(5) and 77(3)

Instruments and equipment — general
1. (1) Instruments and equipment required by this Schedule must be approved in accordance with the applicable airworthiness requirements if they are—
(a) used by the flight crew to control the flight path;
(b) used to comply with paragraph 15 or 16; or
(c) installed in the aircraft.
Word in Sch. 5 para. 1(1)(c) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 43(a)
(2) When required by this Schedule, an equipment approval is not needed for—
(a) independent portable lights;
(b) an accurate time piece;
(c) survival and signalling equipment;
(ca) oxygen supplies;
Sch. 5 para. 1(2)(ca) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 43(b)
(d) sea anchor and equipment for mooring; and
(e) a child restraint device.
(3) As regards instruments and equipment not required by this Schedule, including any equipment that is not otherwise required by this Order but carried on a flight, the failure or malfunction of such instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the aircraft.
(4) Instruments and equipment must be readily operable or accessible from the station where the flight crew member that needs to use it is seated.
(5) All required emergency equipment must be easily accessible for immediate use.

Operating lights
2. Flying machines operated at night must be equipped with—
(a) an anti-collision light system;
(b) navigation/position lights;
(c) a landing light;
(d) lighting supplied from the aeroplane's electrical system to provide adequate illumination for all instruments and equipment essential to the safe operation of the flying machine; and
(e) an independent portable light for each crew member.

Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
3. (1) Unless sub-paragraph (2) applies, flying machines must be equipped with—
(a) a seat or berth for each person on board who is aged 24 months or more;
(b) a seat belt on each passenger seat and restraining belts for each berth;
(c) a child restraint device for each person on board younger than 24 months; and
(d) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on each flight crew seat, having a single point release.
(2) The CAA may permit a flying machine not to be equipped with one or more of the items of equipment in sub-paragraph (1).

Supplemental oxygen — pressurised flying machines
4. (1) Pressurised flying machines operated at flight altitudes for which an oxygen supply is required in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) must be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the required oxygen supplies.
(2) Pressurised flying machines operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passenger compartments is above 10,000 feet must carry enough breathing oxygen to supply—
(a) all crew members and—
(i) 100% of the passengers for any period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet, but in no case less than 10 minutes' supply;
(ii) at least 30% of the passengers, for any period when, in the event of loss of pressurisation and taking into account the circumstances of the flight, the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 14,000 feet and 15,000 feet; and
(iii) at least 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 10,000 feet and 14,000 feet; and
(b) all the occupants of the passenger compartment for no less than 10 minutes, in the case of aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25,000 feet, or operated below that altitude but under conditions that will not allow them to descend safely to a pressure altitude of 13,000 feet within 4 minutes.
(3) Pressurised flying machines operated at flight altitudes above 25,000 feet must, in addition, be equipped with a device to provide a warning indication to the flight crew of any loss of pressurisation.

Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised flying machines
5. (1) Non-pressurised flying machines operated at flight altitudes for which an oxygen supply is required in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) must be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the required oxygen supplies.
(2) Non-pressurised flying machines operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passenger compartments is above 10,000 feet must carry enough breathing oxygen to supply—
(a) all crew members and at least 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 10,000 feet and 13,000 feet; and
(b) all crew members and passengers for any period that the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be above 13,000 feet.

Hand fire extinguishers
6. (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), flying machines must be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher—
(a) in the flight crew compartment; and
(b) in each passenger compartment that is separate from the flight crew compartment, except if the compartment is readily accessible to the flight crew.
(2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply to a flying machine with a maximum take-off mass of 1,200kg or less.

Marking of break-in areas
7. (1) If areas of the aircraft's fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, such areas must be marked in accordance with the following diagram.
(2) The colour of the markings must be red or yellow and, if necessary, must be outlined in white to contrast with the background.
(3) If the corner markings are more than 2 metres apart, intermediate lines measuring 9 centimetres by 3 centimetres must be inserted so that there is no more than 2 metres between adjacent markings.

Flight over water
8. (1) Where—
(a) a flying machine flies beyond autorotational or gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing;
(b) a flying machine takes off or lands at an aerodrome or operating site where, in the opinion of the pilot in command, the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of a ditching in the event of an emergency; or
(c) a seaplane operates over water,
it must be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board, or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on board younger than 24 months, which must be worn or stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided.
(2) Seaplanes operated over water must be equipped with—
(a) one anchor;
(b) one sea anchor (drogue), when necessary to assist in manoeuvring; and
(c) where applicable, equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in COLREGS.
(3) In sub-paragraph (2), “COLREGS” means the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea 1972 (as amended from time to time) having effect under article 1 of the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea 1972 .
Treaty Series No. 77 (1977); Cmnd 6962.

Operations under Visual Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – aeroplanes
9. (1) Aeroplanes operated under Visual Flight Rules by day must be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying the—
(a) magnetic heading;
(b) time, in hours, minutes and seconds;
(c) pressure altitude;
(d) indicated airspeed; and
(e) Mach number, whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number.
(2) Aeroplanes operated under visual meteorological conditions at night must, in addition to the requirements of sub-paragraph (1), be equipped with—
(a) a means of measuring and displaying—
(i) turn and slip; or
(ii) attitude and stabilised heading; and
(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, a means of indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate.

Operations under Instrument Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – aeroplanes
10. Aeroplanes operated under Instrument Flight Rules must be equipped with a means of—
(a) measuring and displaying the—
(i) magnetic heading;
(ii) time in hours, minutes and seconds;
(iii) pressure altitude;
(iv) indicated airspeed;
(v) vertical speed;
(vi) turn and slip;
(vii) attitude;
(viii) stabilised heading;
(ix) outside air temperature; and
(x) Mach number, whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number;
(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate; and
(c) preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in paragraph (a)(iv) due to condensation or icing.

Operations under Visual Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – helicopters and gyroplanes
11. (1) Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under Visual Flight Rules by day must be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying the—
(a) magnetic heading;
(b) time, in hours, minutes and seconds;
(c) pressure altitude;
(d) indicated airspeed; and
(e) slip.
(2) Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under visual meteorological conditions at night or where flight visibility below cloud is less than 1,500 metres must, in addition to the requirements of sub-paragraph (1), be equipped with—
(a) a means of measuring and displaying attitude and stabilised heading; and
(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, a means of indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate.

Operations under Instrument Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – helicopters and gyroplanes
12. Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under Instrument Flight Rules must be equipped with a means of—
(a) measuring and displaying the—
(i) magnetic heading;
(ii) time in hours, minutes and seconds;
(iii) pressure altitude;
(iv) indicated airspeed;
(v) vertical speed;
(vi) slip;
(vii) attitude;
(viii) stabilised heading; and
(ix) outside air temperature;
(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate;
(c) preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in paragraph (a)(iv) due to condensation or icing; and
(d) as a standby instrument, an additional means of measuring and displaying attitude.

Additional equipment for single pilot operations under Instrument Flight Rules – helicopters and gyroplanes
13. Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under Instrument Flight Rules with a single pilot must be equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.

Terrain awareness warning system
14. (1) Turbine-powered aeroplanes certified for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine must be equipped with a terrain awareness warning system that meets the requirements for—
(a) class A equipment, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1st January 2011; or
(b) class B equipment, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or before 1st January 2011.
(2) In this paragraph—
“class A equipment” means equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including excessive closure rate to terrain, flight into terrain when not in landing configuration, excessive downward deviation from an instrument landing system glideslope, a predictive terrain hazard warning function and a visual display; and
“class B equipment” means equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning function.

Radio communication equipment
15. (1) Where required by the notified airspace being flown aircraft must be equipped with radio communication equipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations and on those frequencies to meet airspace requirements.
(2) The radio communication equipment mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) must provide for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5MHz.
(3) When more than one communication equipment unit is required, each must be independent of the others to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

Navigation equipment
16. (1) Aircraft operated over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks must be equipped with any navigation equipment necessary to enable them to proceed in accordance with—
(a) the air traffic service flight plan, if applicable; and
(b) the applicable notified airspace requirements.
(2) Aircraft must have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will allow safe navigation in accordance with sub-paragraph (1), or an appropriate contingency action, to be completed safely.
(3) Aircraft operated on flights in which it is intended to land in instrument meteorological conditions must be equipped with suitable equipment capable of providing—
(a) guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed; and
(b) such guidance for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in instrument meteorological conditions and for any designated destination alternate aerodromes.

Transponder
17. (1) Where required by the notified airspace being flown, aircraft must be equipped with a secondary surveillance radar transponder.
(2) In sub-paragraph (1), “secondary surveillance radar transponder” means such type of radio equipment as may be notified as being capable of—
(a) replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface; and
(b) being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic control unit.

Airborne collision avoidance system II
18. Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and having either—
(a) a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg; or
(b) a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19,
must be equipped with ACAS II in accordance with the Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation.

Maps and charts
19. Maps, charts, codes and other documents necessary for the intended flight of the aircraft, including any diversion which may reasonably be expected from the aerodrome of intended landing, must be carried on the aircraft.
Sch. 5 para. 19 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 43(c)
Word in Sch. 5 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 80 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

SCHEDULE 6 EQUIPMENT OF NON-PART-21 AIRCRAFT ON PUBLIC TRANSPORT OPERATIONS AND MARKING OF BREAK-IN AREAS
Articles 44(5) and 119(2)

PART 1 General equipment

Equipment which must be carried
1. (1) Every aircraft of a description specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 4 which must carry equipment specified in this Part must be provided, if flying in the circumstances specified in the second column of the Table, with adequate equipment.
(2) For the purpose of this paragraph, the expression “adequate equipment” means, subject to sub-paragraphs (3) and (4), the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the third column of that Table.
(3) If the aircraft is flying in a combination of such circumstances, the scales of equipment are not on that account required to be duplicated.
(4) Equipment carried in an aircraft that is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft is to be taken into account in determining whether this Schedule is complied with for that aircraft.

Calculation of flying time
2. For the purposes of the Table in paragraph 4, flying time in relation to a helicopter or gyroplane is to be calculated on the assumption that it is flying in still air at the speed specified in the relevant flight manual as the speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water.

Equipment not requiring type approval
3. The following items of equipment are not required to be of a type approved by ... the CAA—
(a) the equipment referred to in Scale A(2);
(b) first aid equipment and handbook, referred to in Scale A(3);
(c) time-pieces, referred to in Scale F;
(d) torches, referred to in Scales G and K;
(e) whistles and survivor locator lights, referred to in Scale H;
(f) sea anchors, referred to in Scales J and K;
(g) rocket signals, referred to in Scale J;
(h) equipment for mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring aircraft on the water, referred to in Scale J;
(i) paddles, referred to in Scale K;
(j) food and water, referred to in Scales K, U and V;
(k) first aid equipment, referred to in Scales K, U and V;
(l) stoves, cooking utensils, snow shovels, ice saws, sleeping bags and Arctic suits, referred to in Scale V;
(m) megaphones, referred to in Scale Y.
Words in Sch. 6 para. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(3) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Table of required equipment
4. The Table is as follows—
Description of Aircraft	Circumstances of Flight	Scale of Equipment Required
(1) Aeroplanes	(a) flying for the purpose of public transport and—	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7), D and F(1)
	(i) flying under Instrument Flight Rules except flights outside controlled airspace in the case of aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 1,150kg	E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(ii) flying by night—	
	(aa) in the case of aeroplanes which have a maximum take-off mass not exceeding 1,150kg	C and G
	(bb) in the case of aeroplanes which have a maximum take-off mass exceeding 1,150kg	C and G, E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(iii) flying over water beyond gliding distance from land	H
	(iv) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the aeroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(v) flying over water—	
	(aa) in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit becoming inoperative, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser or	H and K
	(bb) in the case of all other aeroplanes, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser	H and K
	(vi) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 2002	KK(1) or (2)
	(vii) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 2002	KK(2)
	(viii) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K
	(ix) flying at a height of 10,000 feet or more above mean sea level—	
	(aa) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989	L1 or L2
	(bb) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989	L2
	(x) on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met	M
	(xi) carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres	B(8) and (9)
	(xii) on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person	N
	(xiii) on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Q and Y(1), (2) and (3)
	(xiv) on all flights by a pressurised aircraft	R
	(xv) flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U
	(xvi) flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V
	(xvii) flying at an altitude of more than 49,000 feet	W
(2) Turbine-jet aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg or pressurised aircraft having a maximum take-off mass of more than 11,400kg	flying for the purpose of public transport	O
(3) Turbine-engined aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraphs (4) or (5) which are—		
(a) operated by an the holder of a national air operator's certificate; ... or	flying on any public transport flight	P
(b) public transport aeroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under a Part-21 permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3	flying on any public transport flight	P
(4) Public transport aeroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes for which an application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under a Part-21 permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3 except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraph (5) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate—		
(a) (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg but of not more than 11,400kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(1)
(b) (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 11,400kg but not more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(2)
(c) (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg but not more than 230,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(3)
(d) in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 230,000kg	flying on any public transport flight	S(3)
(5) Public transport aeroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under a Part-21 permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3 for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum take-off mass of—		
(a) not more than 5,700kg, are powered by two or more turbine engines and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(4)
(b) more than 5,700kg but not more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(5)
(c) more than 27,000kg	flying on any public transport flight	S(6)
(6) Public transport aeroplanes—		
(a) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and having a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	T
(b) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 230,000kg and for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness; or	flying on any public transport flight	T
(c) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate on or after 1st April 1971 (or 1st January 1970 in the case of an aeroplane having a maximum take-off mass of more than 230,000kg) for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under a Part-21 permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3	flying on any public transport flight	T
(7) Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30	flying for the purpose of public transport	X(1)
(8) Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg but not more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 but not more than 30	flying for the purpose of public transport except when flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate	X(1)
(9) Aeroplanes—		
(a) powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 22,700kg; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(b) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(c) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1)
(d) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(e) powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 22,700kg; or	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(f) first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1958 and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(10) Aeroplanes—		
(a) powered by one or more turbine jets	flying for the purpose of the public transport	AA
(b) powered by one or more turbine propeller engines and having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and first issued with a certificate of airworthiness in the United Kingdom on or after 1st April 1989	flying for the purpose of the public transport	AA
(11) Public transport aeroplanes	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Y(4)
(12) Helicopters and Gyroplanes	flying for the purpose of public transport and—	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) and F(1) and F(4)
	(i) flying by day under Visual Flight Rules—	
	(aa) with the surface in sight	D
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E
	(ii) flying by day under Instrument Flight Rules—	
	(aa) with the surface in sight	E
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3) and (5)
	(iii) flying by night with the surface in sight—	
	(aa) in circumstances where one pilot is required	C, E with E(2) duplicated and either E(4) duplicated or a radio altimeter, F(2), (3), (5) and G
	(bb) in circumstances where two pilots are required	C, E, F(2), (3), and (5) and G for each pilot's station
	(iv) flying by night when the surface is not in sight	C, E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3), (5) and G
	(v) flying over water—	
	(aa) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 2 or 3 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 or B when beyond auto-rotational gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing	E and H
	(bb) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the helicopter or gyroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(cc) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 when beyond 10 minutes flying time from land	E, H, K and T
	(dd) for more than a total of three minutes in any flight	EE
	(ee) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 which is intended to fly beyond 10 minutes flying time from land or which actually flies beyond 10 minutes flying time from land, on a flight which is either in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas) or is on a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate, when in either case the weather reports or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate that the sea temperature will be less than plus 10ºC during the flight or when any part of the flight is at night	I
	(vi) flying on Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations over water beyond 10 minutes flying time from land and not required to comply with sub-paragraph (ix)	KK(2)
	(vii) flying on Performance Class 3 operations beyond auto-rotational or safe forced landing distance from land	KK(2)
	(viii) flying over land areas which have been designated by the State concerned as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult	KK(2)
	(ix) flying on Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations over water in a hostile environment at a distance from land corresponding to more than ten minutes flying time at normal cruising speed in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas)	KK(3)
	(x) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K
	(xi) flying at a height of 10,000 feet or more above mean sea level—	
	(aa) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989	L1 or L2
	(bb) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989	L2
	(xii) on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met	M
	(xiii) on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person	N
	(xiv) on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Y(1), (2) and (3)
	(xv) flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U
	(xvi) flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V
	(xvii) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine and operating in a hostile environment	SS(8)
(13) Helicopters and Gyroplanes—		
(a) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any helicopter or gyroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to a helicopter or gyroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(b) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1)
(c) which are public transport helicopters or gyroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport helicopters or gyroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under a Part-21 permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3; and—		
(i) which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 2,730kg but not more than 7,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or both	flying on any public transport flight	SS(1) or SS(3)
(ii) which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 7,000kg	flying on any public transport flight	SS(2) or SS(3)
Words in Sch. 6 para. 4 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(4)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 6 para. 4 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(4)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Scales of equipment
5. The scales of equipment indicated in the Table at paragraph 4 are as follows—

Scale A
(1) Spare fuses for all electrical circuits the fuses of which can be replaced in flight, consisting of 10% of the number of each rating or three of each rating, whichever is the greater.
(2) Maps, charts, codes and other documents and navigational equipment necessary, in addition to any other equipment required under this Order, for the intended flight of the aircraft including any diversion which may reasonably be expected.
(3) First aid equipment of good quality, sufficient in quantity, having regard to the number of persons on board the aircraft, and including the following—
(a) roller bandages;
(b) triangular bandages;
(c) adhesive plaster;
(d) absorbent gauze or wound dressings;
(e) cotton wool or wound dressings;
(f) burn dressings;
(g) safety pins;
(h) haemostatic bandages or tourniquets;
(i) scissors;
(j) antiseptic;
(k) analgesic and stimulant drugs;
(l) splints, in the case of aeroplanes the maximum take-off mass of which exceeds 5,700kg; and
(m) a handbook on first aid.
(4) In the case of a flying machine used for the public transport of passengers in which, while the flying machine is at rest on the ground, the sill of any external door intended for the disembarkation of passengers, whether normally or in an emergency—
(a) is more than 1.82 metres from the ground when the undercarriage of the machine is in the normal position for taxiing; or
(b) would be more than 1.82 metres from the ground if the whole or any part of the undercarriage should collapse, break or fail to function,
apparatus readily available for use at each such door consisting of a device or devices which will enable passengers to reach the ground safely in an emergency while the flying machine is on the ground, and can be readily fixed in position for use.
(5) A hand fire extinguisher for each enclosed passenger and crew compartment, so installed that at least one extinguisher is conveniently located for use by a member of the flight crew.

Scale AA
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), an altitude alerting system capable of alerting the pilot on approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or descent, by a sequence of visual and aural signals in sufficient time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude and when deviating above or below that preselected altitude, by a visual and an aural signal.
(2) If the system becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly, until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the system to be repaired or replaced.

Scale B
(1) If the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft is 2,730kg or less, for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot's seat, either a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt without a diagonal shoulder strap for which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(2) If the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft exceeds 2,730kg, either a safety harness for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot's seat, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness.
(3) For every seat in use (not being a seat referred to in paragraphs (1), (2), (5) and (6)) a safety belt with or without one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(4) In addition, and to be attached to or secured by the equipment required in paragraph (3) or (6), a child restraint device for every child under the age of two years on board.
(5) On all flights for the public transport of passengers by aircraft, for each seat for use by cabin crew who are required to be carried under this Order, a safety harness.
(6) On all flights in aeroplanes for which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st February 1989, the maximum take-off mass of which is not more than 5,700kg and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 9 or less, (otherwise than for seats referred to under paragraph (1) or (2)), a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness for each seat intended for use by a passenger.
(7) If the pilot in command cannot, from the pilot in command's own seat, see all the passenger seats in the aircraft, a means of indicating to the passengers that seat belts should be fastened.
(8) Subject to paragraph (9), a safety harness for every seat in use.
(9) In the case of an aircraft carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres consisting only of erect spinning, the CAA may permit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap to be fitted if it is satisfied that such restraint is sufficient for the carrying out of erect spinning in that aircraft and that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness in that aircraft.

Scale C
(1) Equipment for displaying the lights required by provision 3215 of SERA.
(2) Electrical equipment, supplied from the main source of supply in the aircraft, to provide sufficient illumination to enable the flight crew properly to carry out their duties during flight.
(3) Unless the aircraft is equipped with radio, devices for making the visual signal specified in paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 of the Appendix to SERA as indicating a request for permission to land.

Scale D
(1) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator.
(2) In the case of any other flying machine either—
(a) a turn indicator and a slip indicator; or
(b) a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a gyroscopic direction indicator.
(3) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.

Scale E
(1) In the case of—
(a) a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator;
(b) any other flying machine, a slip indicator and either a turn indicator or, at the option of the operator, an additional gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(2) A gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(3) A gyroscopic direction indicator.
(4) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.

Scale EE
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a radio altimeter with an audio voice warning operating below a pre-set height and a visual warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
(2) A helicopter flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate may instead be equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio warning and a visual warning each capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.

Scale F
(1) A timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
(2) A means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instrument is adequate.
(3) A rate of climb and descent indicator.
(4) A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature calibrated in degrees Celsius.
(5) If the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft exceeds 5,700kg, two air speed indicators.

Scale G
(1) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane, landing lights consisting of two single filament lamps, or one dual filament lamp with separately energised filaments.
(2) An electrical lighting system to provide illumination in every passenger compartment.
(3) Either—
(a) one electric torch for each member of the crew of the aircraft; or
(b) one electric torch—
(i) for each member of the flight crew of the aircraft; and
(ii) affixed adjacent to each floor level exit intended for the disembarkation of passengers whether normally or in an emergency, provided that such torches must—
(aa) be readily accessible for use by the crew of the aircraft at all times; and
(bb) number in total not less than the minimum number of members of the cabin crew required to be carried with a full passenger complement.
(4) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane which has a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700kg, means of observing the existence and build-up of ice on the aircraft.
(5) In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations or a gyroplane for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group A, either—
(a) two landing lights both of which are adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane and one of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground on either side of the helicopter or gyroplane; or
(b) one landing light or, if the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700kg, one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments, or two single filament lights, each of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane, and two parachute flares.
(6) In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 3 operations or a gyroplane for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group B—
(a) one landing light and two parachute flares;
(b) if the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700kg, either one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments or two single filament landing lights, and two parachute flares; or
(c) if the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter or gyroplane is 5,700kg or less and the flight is for a purpose other than public transport—
(i) two landing lights, one of which is adjustable in flight so as to illuminate the ground in front of, below and on either side of the helicopter; or
(ii) two landing lights in addition to the helicopter standard equipment, which must be adjusted so as to illuminate the ground in front of the helicopter.

Scale GG
(1) A landing light.

Scale H
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), for each person on board, a lifejacket equipped with a whistle and survivor locator light.
(2) Lifejackets constructed and carried solely for use by children under three years of age need not be equipped with a whistle.

Scale I
(1) A survival suit for each member of the crew.

Scale J
(1) Additional flotation equipment, capable of supporting one-fifth of the number of persons on board, and provided in a place of stowage accessible from outside the flying machine.
(2) Parachute distress rocket signals capable of making, from the surface of the water, the pyrotechnical signal of distress specified in paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 of the Appendix to SERA and complying with paragraph 3.1 of the International Life-Saving Appliance (LSA) Code contained in International Maritime Organisation Resolution MSC.48(66), as amended .
Treaty Series No. 44 (1998); Cm 4063.
(3) A sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring the flying machine on water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics.

Scale K
(1) In the case of—
(a) a flying machine, other than a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, liferafts sufficient to accommodate all persons on board;
(b) a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, a minimum of two liferafts sufficient together to accommodate all persons on board.
(2) Each liferaft must contain the following equipment—
(a) means of maintaining buoyancy;
(b) a sea anchor;
(c) life-lines, and means of attaching one liferaft to another;
(d) paddles or other means of propulsion;
(e) means of protecting the occupants from the elements;
(f) a waterproof torch;
(g) marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;
(h) means of making sea water drinkable, unless the full quantity of fresh water is carried as specified in sub-paragraph (i);
(i) for each four or proportion of four persons the liferaft is designed to carry, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets and—
(i) ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers; or
(ii) in any case in which it is not reasonably practicable to carry ½ litre of fresh water, as large a quantity of fresh water in durable containers as is reasonably practicable in the circumstances,
provided that in no case must the quantity of water carried be less than is sufficient, when added to the amount of fresh water capable of being produced by means of the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (h) to provide ½ litre of water for each four or proportion of four persons the liferaft is designed to carry; and
(j) first aid equipment.
(3) Items (2)(f) to (j) inclusive must be contained in a pack.
(4) The number of survival beacon radio apparatus carried when the aircraft is carrying the number of liferafts specified in Column 1 of the following Table must be not less than the number specified in, or calculated in accordance with, Column 2.
Column 1	Column 2
Not more than 8 liferafts	2 survival beacon radio apparatus
For every additional 4 or proportion of 4 liferafts	1 additional survival beacon radio apparatus

Scale KK
(1) A survival emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).
(2) An automatic emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).
(3) An automatically deployable emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).
(4) The transmitter must be capable of operating in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, Volume III (Second Edition July 2007) and transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.

Scale L1 Part 1
(1) In every flying machine which is provided with means for maintaining a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals throughout the flight in the flight crew compartment and in the compartments in which the passengers are carried—
(a) in the event of a failure to maintain such pressure occurring in the circumstances specified in columns 1 and 2 of the Table set out in Part 2, a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use during the periods specified in column 3 of the Table, by the persons for whom oxygen is to be provided in accordance with column 4 of the Table; and
(b) in every case where the flying machine flies above flight level 350, a supply of oxygen in a portable container sufficient for the simultaneous first aid treatment of two passengers,
together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(2) In any other flying machine—
(a) a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all the crew other than the flight crew and, if passengers are carried, by 10% of the number of passengers, for any period of more than 30 minutes during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 130; and the flight crew must be supplied with oxygen sufficient for continuous use for any period during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100; and
(b) a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all persons on board for the whole time during which the flying machine flies above flight level 130,
together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(3) The quantity of oxygen required for the purpose of complying with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this Part is to be computed in accordance with the information and instructions specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft under paragraph 1(h) of Part 1 of Schedule 9.
Scale L1 Part 2
Column1Vertical displacement of the flying machine in relation to flight levels	Column 2Capability of flying machine to descend (where relevant)	Column 3Period of supply of oxygen	Column 4Persons for whom oxygen is to be provided
Above flight level 100		30 minutes or the period specified in note 1 to the table, whichever is the greater	In addition to any passengers for whom oxygen is provided as specified below, all the crew
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300	Flying machine is either flying at or below flight level 150 or is capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified in note 4 to the table	30 minutes or the period specified in note 1 to the table, whichever is the greater	10% of number of passengers
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300	Flying machine is flying above flight level 150 and is not capable of descending and continuing to destination specified in note 4 to the table	10 minutes or the period specified in note 2 to the table, whichever is the greater—	All passengers
		and 30 minutes or the period specified in note 3 to the table, whichever is the greater	10% of number of passengers
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350	Flying machine is capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified in note 5 to the table	30 minutes or the period specified in note 1 to the table, whichever is the greater	15% of number of passengers
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350	Flying machine is not capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified in note 5 to the table	10 minutes or the period specified in note 2 to the table, whichever is the greater—	All passengers
		and 30 minutes or the period specified in note 3 to the table, whichever is the greater	15% of passengers
Above flight level 350		10 minutes or the period specified in note 2 to the table, whichever is the greater—	All passengers
		and 30 minutes or the period specified in note 3 to the table, whichever is the greater	15% of number of passengers
1 The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals in the control compartment and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100.			
2 The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 150.			
3 The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100, but not above flight level 150.			
4 The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual, to flight level 150 within six minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.			
5 The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual, to flight level 150 within four minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.			

Scale L2
(1) A supply of oxygen and the associated equipment to meet the requirements set out in Part 1 of this Scale in the case of unpressurised aircraft and Part 2 of this Scale in the case of pressurised aircraft.
(2) The duration for the purposes of this Scale is whichever is the greater of—
(a) that calculated in accordance with the operations manual before the commencement of the flight, being the period or periods which it is reasonably anticipated that the aircraft will be flown in the circumstances of the intended flight at a height where the said requirements apply, and in calculating the duration, account must be taken of—
(i) in the case of pressurised aircraft, the possibility of depressurisation when flying above flight level 100;
(ii) the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines;
(iii) restrictions due to required minimum safe altitude;
(iv) fuel requirement; and
(v) the performance of the aircraft; or
(b) the period or periods during which the aircraft is actually flown in the circumstances specified in those Parts.

Part 1 Unpressurised aircraft
(3) When flying at or below flight level 100, nil.
(4) When flying above flight level 100 but not above flight level 120—
Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100
(b) Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers	For any continuous period of more than 30 minutes during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 120, the duration is the period by which 30 minutes is exceeded
(5) When flying above flight level 120—
Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120
(b) Members of the cabin crew and all passengers	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120

Part 2 Pressurised aircraft
(6) When flying at or below flight level 100, nil.
(7) When flying above flight level 100 but not above flight level 250—
Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, whichever is the greater
(b) Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers	(i) When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified in note 1 to the table, 30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, whichever is the greater
	(ii) When the aircraft is not so capable, whenever the cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10,000 feet but is not more than 12,000 feet
(c) Members of the cabin crew and all passengers	(i) When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A below, no requirement other than that at (2)(b)(i) of this Part of this Scale
	(ii) When the aircraft is not so capable and the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet, the duration is the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater
1 The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain cabin pressurisation occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 120 within five minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.	
(8) When flying above flight level 250—
Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	2 hours or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, whichever is the greater
(b) Members of the cabin crew	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, and a portable supply for 15 minutes
(c) 10% of passengers	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet but is not more than 12,000 feet
(d) 30% of passengers	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet but is not more than 15,000 feet
(e) All passengers	If the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet, the duration is the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater
(e) 2% of passengers or two passengers, whichever is the greater, being a supply of first aid oxygen which must be available for simultaneous first aid treatment of 2% or two passengers wherever they are seated in the aircraft	Whenever, after decompression, the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 8,000 feet

Scale M
(1) Equipment to prevent the impairment through ice formation of the functioning of the controls, means of propulsion, lifting surfaces, windows or equipment of the aircraft so as to endanger the safety of the aircraft.

Scale N
(1) An intercommunication system for use by all members of the flight crew and including microphones, not of a hand-held type, for use by the pilot and flight engineer (if any).

Scale O
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a radar set capable of giving warning to the pilot in command of the aircraft and to the co-pilot of the presence of cumulo-nimbus clouds and other potentially hazardous weather conditions.
(2) A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable in flight so as to give the warning only to one pilot, if the aircraft is flying only to the place at which it first becomes reasonably practicable for the set to be repaired.
(3) A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable in flight if—
(a) the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate that cumulo-nimbus clouds or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, which can be detected by the set when in working order, are unlikely to be encountered on the intended route or any planned diversion from the route; or
(b) the pilot in command is satisfied that any such weather conditions will be encountered in daylight and can be seen and avoided; and
(c) the aircraft is operated throughout the flight in accordance with any relevant instructions given in the operations manual.

Scale P
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (5), a flight data recorder which is capable of recording, by reference to a time-scale, the following data—
(a) indicated airspeed;
(b) indicated altitude;
(c) vertical acceleration;
(d) magnetic heading;
(e) pitch attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(f) engine power, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(g) flap position; and
(h) roll attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded.
(2) Subject to paragraph (5), any aeroplane having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 11,400kg may be provided with—
(a) a flight data recorder capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (1); or
(b) a four channel cockpit voice recorder.
(3) Subject to paragraph (5), in addition, on all flights by turbine-powered aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 11,400kg, a four channel cockpit voice recorder.
(4) The flight data recorder and cockpit voice recorder referred to above must be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident to the aeroplane.
(5) An aeroplane is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) if, before take off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Scale R
(1) For aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg—
(a) equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the flight crew required to be carried by Section 1 of Chapter 2, and Section 2 of Chapter 7, of Part 5 for a period of not less than 15 minutes; and
(b) if under Section 1 of Chapter 2, and Section 2 of Chapter 7, of Part 5 the minimum flight crew required to be carried is more than one and a member of the cabin crew is not required to be carried, portable equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight crew for a period of not less than 15 minutes.
(2) For aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 5,700kg—
(a) either the equipment specified in paragraph (1); or
(b) in the case of such aeroplanes which are restricted by virtue of the operator's operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and are capable of descending as specified at paragraph (5), such equipment sufficient to protect the eyes only.
(3) For—
(a) aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg, portable equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the cabin crew required to be carried by Section 1 of Chapter 2, and Section 2 of Chapter 7, of Part 5 for a period of not less than 15 minutes;
(b) aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 5,700kg, subject to paragraph (4), the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (3)(a).
(4) Sub-paragraph (3)(b) does not apply to such aeroplanes which are restricted by virtue of the operator's operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and are capable of descending as specified at paragraph (5).
(5) The aeroplane is capable of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane, to flight level 100 within four minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.

Scale S
(1) Subject to paragraph (8), either a four channel cockpit voice recorder or a flight data recorder which complies with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a) the flight path;
(b) attitude; and
(c) the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting on it.
(2) Subject to paragraph (8), a four channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a) the information specified in paragraph (1); and
(b) use of VHF transmitters.
(3) Subject to paragraph (8), a four channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a) the flight path;
(b) attitude;
(c) the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting on it;
(d) the selection of high lift devices (if any) and airbrakes (if any);
(e) the position of primary flying control and pitch trim surfaces;
(f) outside air temperature;
(g) instrument landing deviations;
(h) use of automatic flight control systems;
(i) use of VHF transmitters;
(j) radio altitude (if any); and
(k) the level or availability of essential AC electricity supply and cockpit warnings relating to engine fire and engine shut-down, cabin pressurisation, presence of smoke and hydraulic/pneumatic power supply.
(4) Subject to paragraph (8), either a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder or a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable in either case of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a) the flight path;
(b) speed;
(c) attitude;
(d) engine power;
(e) outside air temperature;
(f) configuration of lift and drag devices;
(g) use of VHF transmitters; and
(h) use of automatic flight control systems.
(5) Subject to paragraph (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a) the flight path;
(b) speed;
(c) attitude;
(d) engine power;
(e) outside air temperature;
(f) configuration of lift and drag devices;
(g) use of VHF transmitters; and
(h) use of automatic flight control systems.
(6) Subject to paragraph (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a) the flight path;
(b) speed;
(c) attitude;
(d) engine power;
(e) outside air temperature;
(f) instrument landing system deviations;
(g) marker beacon passage;
(h) radio altitude;
(i) configuration of the landing gear and lift and drag devices;
(j) position of primary flying controls;
(k) pitch trim position;
(l) use of automatic flight control systems;
(m) use of VHF transmitters;
(n) ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;
(o) cockpit warnings relating to ground proximity; and
(p) the master warning system.
(7) Any cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder required to be carried by paragraphs (1) to (6) must be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.
(8) An aircraft is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (6) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Scale SS
(1) A four channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last eight hours of its operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale the following matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—
(a) flight path;
(b) speed;
(c) attitude;
(d) engine power;
(e) main rotor speed;
(f) outside air temperature;
(g) position of pilot's primary flight controls;
(h) use of VHF transmitters;
(i) use of automatic flight controls (if any);
(j) use of stability augmentation system (if any);
(k) cockpit warnings relating to the master warning system; and
(l) selection of hydraulic system and cockpit warnings of failure of essential hydraulic systems.
(2) A—
(a) four channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation; and
(b) flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 8 hours of its operation, being the data required to accurately determine by reference to a time scale the information specified in paragraph (1) together with the following matters in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—
(i) landing gear configuration;
(ii) indicated sling load force if an indicator is provided in the helicopter or gyroplane of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;
(iii) radio altitude;
(iv) instrument landing system deviations;
(v) marker beacon passage;
(vi) ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the helicopter or gyroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability; and
(vii) main gear box oil temperature and pressure.
(3) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (7), a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder which meets the following requirements—
(a) in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (1) the flight data recorder must be capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (1) and retaining it for the duration specified in paragraph (1);
(b) in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (2) the flight data recorder must be capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (2) and retaining it for the duration specified in paragraph (2); and
(c) the cockpit voice recorder must be capable of recording and retaining at least the last hour of cockpit voice recording information on not less than three separate channels.
(4) In any case when a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder specified at paragraph (3)(a) is required to be carried by or under this Order, the flight data recorder—
(a) must be capable of retaining—
(i) as protected data the data recorded during at least the last five hours of its operation or the maximum duration of the flight, whichever is the greater; and
(ii) additional data as unprotected data for a period which together with the period for which protected data is required to be retained amounts to a total of eight hours; and
(b) need not be capable of retaining the additional data specified in paragraph (a)(ii) if—
(i) other additional data is retained which relates to the period immediately preceding the period to which the required protected data relates or for such other period or periods as the CAA may permit under article 234(4)(b); and
(ii) the other additional data is retained in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(5) With the exception of flight data which it is expressly stated above may be unprotected, the cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane must be so constructed and installed that the data recorded (in this Scale referred to as “protected data”) would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.
(6) Each cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane must have attached an automatically activated underwater sonar location device or an emergency locator radio transmitter.
(7) A helicopter or gyroplane is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (3) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(8) A vibration health monitoring system capable of monitoring the vibration of critical helicopter rotor and rotor drive system components.

Scale T
(1) An underwater sonar location device except for those helicopters or gyroplanes which are required to carry equipment in accordance with Scale SS.

Scale U
(1) One survival beacon radio apparatus.
(2) Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.
(3) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.
(4) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers.
(5) First aid equipment.

Scale V
(1) One survival beacon radio apparatus.
(2) Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.
(3) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.
(4) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers.
(5) First aid equipment.
(6) For every 75 or proportion of 75 persons on board, 1 stove suitable for use with aircraft fuel.
(7) One cooking utensil, in which snow or ice can be melted.
(8) Two snow shovels.
(9) Two ice saws.
(10) Single or multiple sleeping-bags, sufficient for the use of one-third of all persons on board.
(11) One arctic suit for each member of the crew of the aircraft.

Scale W
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), cosmic radiation detection equipment calibrated in millirems per hour and capable of indicating the action and alert levels of radiation dose rate.
(2) An aircraft is not required to carry the equipment if—
(a) before take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable and it is not reasonably practicable to repair or replace it at the aerodrome of departure; and
(b) the radiation forecast available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicates that hazardous radiation conditions are unlikely to be encountered by the aircraft on its intended route or any planned diversion from that route.

Scale X
(1) Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class A, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including excessive closure rate to terrain, flight into terrain when not in landing configuration, excessive downward deviation from an instrument landing system glideslope, a predictive terrain hazard warning function and a visual display.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class B, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning function.
(3) If the equipment becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the equipment to be repaired or replaced.

Scale Y
(1) If the aircraft may carry more than 19 and less than 100 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, one portable battery-powered megaphone capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(2) If the aircraft may carry more than 99 and less than 200 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, two portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(3) If the aircraft may carry more than 199 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, three portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(4) If the aircraft may carry more than 19 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness—
(a) a public address system; and
(b) an interphone system of communication between members of the flight crew and the cabin crew.

Scale Z
(1) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.
(2) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination outside the aircraft sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), an emergency floor path lighting system in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.
(4) If the equipment specified in paragraph (3) becomes unserviceable the aircraft may fly or continue to fly in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Marking of break-in areas
6. (1) If areas of the aircraft's fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, such areas must be marked in accordance with the following diagram.
(2) The colour of the markings must be red or yellow and, if necessary, must be outlined in white to contrast with the background.
(3) If the corner markings are more than 2 metres apart, intermediate lines measuring 9 centimetres by 3 centimetres must be inserted so that there is no more than 2 metres between adjacent markings.

PART 2 Radio communication and radio navigation equipment
1. Subject to paragraph 2, every aircraft which must carry equipment specified in this Schedule must be provided, when flying in the circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 3 of this Schedule, with the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the second column of that Table.
2. (1) In the case of sub-paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (8)(d) and (9) of the Table in paragraph 3, the specified equipment need not be carried if the appropriate air traffic control unit permits flight to commence without that equipment and the aircraft complies with any instructions which the air traffic control unit may give in the particular case.
(2) If an aircraft is flying in a combination of circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 3 the scales of equipment are not on that account required to be duplicated.
3. The Table is as follows—
Aircraft and Circumstances of Flight	Scale of Equipment Required								
	A	B	C	D	E	F	G	H	J
(1) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) within the United Kingdom—									
(a) flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace	A				E2	F			
(b) flying within controlled airspace	A								
(c) making an approach to landing at an aerodrome notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph							G		
(d) flying within Class A airspace, Class B airspace or Class C airspace					E2				
(2) All aircraft within the United Kingdom—									
(a) flying at or above flight level 195	A								
(b) flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph	A								
(3) All aircraft (other than gliders, SLMGs and balloons) within the United Kingdom flying for the purpose of public transport					E2				
(4) All gliders and SLMGs within the United Kingdom—									
(a) flying at or above flight level 100 except when flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph					E2				
(b) flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace					E2				
(c) flying within Class A airspace, Class B airspace or Class C airspace, except when flying within airspace notified as a Temporary Reserved Area (Gliding)					E2				
(d) flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph					E2				
(5) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) within the United Kingdom—									
(a) flying at or above flight level 245					E2	F			
(b) flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph					E2				
(c) flying at or above flight level 100					E2				
(6) When flying under Instrument Flight Rules within airspace notified for the purposes of this paragraph—									
(a) all aeroplanes having a maximum take-off weight authorised of not more than 5,700kg and a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of not more than 250 knots					E2				
(b) all rotorcraft					E2				
(c) all aeroplanes having either a maximum take-off weight authorised of more than 5,700kg or a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of more than 250 knots					E3				
(7) All aircraft required to carry Scale E2 or E3					EE				
(9) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be—									
(a) flying for the purpose of public transport under Instrument Flight Rules—									
(i) while making an approach to landing	A		C	D				H	
(ii) on all other occasions	A		C					H	
(b) multi-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules	A							H	
(c) single-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules—									
(i) over a route on which navigation is effected solely by visual reference to landmarks	A								
(ii) on all other occasions	A	B							
(d) flying under Instrument Flight Rules and not required to comply with paragraph (9)(a)	A								
(9) All aircraft (other than gliders, SLMGs and balloons) registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be when flying for the purpose of public transport					E2				
(10) All aeroplanes registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be, and all aeroplanes wherever registered when flying in the United Kingdom, powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight of more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30									J
(11) All aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight of more than 5,700kg or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; and which are—									
(a) registered in the United Kingdom and flying for the purpose of public transport; or									J
(b) registered in the United Kingdom and flying within the airspace of the member states of the European Civil Aviation Conference; or									J
(c) flying in the United Kingdom									J
4. The scales of radio communication and radio navigation equipment indicated in the Table at paragraph 3 are as follows—

Scale A
Radio communication equipment capable of maintaining direct two-way communication with the appropriate air traffic control units on the intended route using the frequencies notified or otherwise designated by the competent authority for that purpose.

Scale B
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including such equipment as may be prescribed.

Scale C
Radio communication equipment capable of receiving from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations meteorological broadcasts relevant to the intended flight.

Scale D
Radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals from one or more aeronautical radio stations on the surface to enable the aircraft to be guided to a point from which a visual landing can be made at the aerodrome at which the aircraft is to land.

Scale E2
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Elementary Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.

Scale E3
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Enhanced Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.

Scale EE
The aircraft must, in the circumstances specified in paragraph 2.1.5.3 of Volume IV (Fourth Edition July 2007) of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, comply with the requirements for antenna diversity set out in that paragraph.

Scale F
Radio communication and radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated along the intended route including—
(a) automatic direction finding equipment;
(b) distance measuring equipment; and
(c) VHF omni-range equipment.

Scale G
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to make an approach to landing using the Instrument Landing System.

Scale H
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including—
(a) automatic direction finding equipment;
(b) distance measuring equipment;
(c) duplicated VHF omni-range equipment; and
(d) a 75 MHz marker beacon receiver.
(2) An aircraft may fly notwithstanding that it does not carry the equipment specified in this Scale if it carries alternative radio navigation equipment or navigational equipment approved in accordance with article 119(3).
(3) Where only one item of equipment specified in this Scale is unserviceable when the aircraft is about to begin a flight, the aircraft may nevertheless take off on that flight if—
(a) it is not reasonably practicable for the repair or replacement of that item to be carried out before the beginning of the flight;
(b) the aircraft has not made more than one flight since the item was last serviceable; and
(c) the pilot in command of the aircraft is satisfied that the flight can be made safely and in accordance with any relevant requirements of the appropriate air traffic control unit, taking into account the latest information available as to the route and aerodrome to be used (including any planned diversion) and the weather conditions likely to be encountered.

Scale J
An airborne collision avoidance system.
5. In this Part—
“Airborne collision avoidance system” means an aeroplane system which—
(a) conforms to requirements prescribed for the purpose;
(b) is based on secondary surveillance radar equipment transponder signals;
(c) operates independently of ground based equipment; and
(d) is designed to provide advice and appropriate avoidance manoeuvres to the pilot in relation to other aeroplanes which are equipped with secondary surveillance radar and are in undue proximity;
“Automatic direction finding equipment” means radio navigation equipment which automatically indicates the bearing of any radio station transmitting the signals received by such equipment;
“Distance measuring equipment” means radio equipment capable of providing a continuous indication of the aircraft's distance from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations;
“Mode A” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for identity and surveillance with identity provided in the form of a four digit identity code;
“Mode C” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for automatic pressure-altitude transmission and surveillance;
“Secondary surveillance radar equipment” means such type of radio equipment as may be notified as being capable of—
(a) replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface; and
(b) being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic control unit;
“VHF omni-range equipment” means radio navigation equipment capable of giving visual indications of bearings of the aircraft by means of signals received from very high frequency omni-directional radio ranges.
Word in Sch. 6 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(2) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

SCHEDULE 7 AIRCRAFT CONTINUING AIRWORTHINESS RECORDS
Article 226

Aircraft continuing airworthiness records
1. Aircraft continuing airworthiness records must contain the current—
(a) status of airworthiness directives and measures mandated by the CAA in immediate reaction to a safety problem;
(b) status of modifications and repairs;
(c) status of compliance with maintenance programme;
(d) status of service life limited components;
(e) mass and balance report;
(f) certificate of release to service required by article 44 at the completion of any maintenance; and
(g) list of deferred maintenance.

Aircraft log book
2. The following entries must be included in the aircraft log book—
(a) the aircraft type;
(b) the aircraft registration mark;
(c) the date, together with the aircraft's accumulated total flight time, flight cycles and landings, as appropriate.

Engine, propeller and component logs
3. In addition to the authorised release document, CAA Form 1 or equivalent, the following information relevant to any engine, propeller, engine module or service life limited component must be entered in the appropriate engine or propeller logbook, engine module or service life limited component log card—
(a) identification of the component;
(b) the type, serial number and registration, as appropriate, of the aircraft, engine, propeller, engine module or service life limited component to which the particular component has been fitted, along with the reference to the installation and removal of the component;
(c) the date, together with the component's accumulated total flight time, and flight cycles, landings and calendar time, as appropriate; and
(d) the information in paragraph 1 applicable to the component.
Word in Sch. 7 para. 3 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 82 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Retention of records
4. The owner or operator of an aircraft must ensure that a system has been established to keep the records specified in column 1 of the table for the corresponding periods specified in column 2 of that table.
Column 1 - Record	Column 2 - Period
all detailed maintenance records in respect of the aircraft and any service life limited component fitted thereto	until such time as the information contained therein is superseded by new information equivalent in scope and detail but not less than 36 months after the aircraft or component has been released to service
the total time in service (hours, calendar time, cycles and landings) of the aircraft and all service life limited components	at least 12 months after the aircraft or component has been permanently withdrawn from service
the time in service (hours, calendar time, cycles and landings) as appropriate, since last scheduled maintenance of the component subjected to a service life limit	at least until the component scheduled maintenance has been superseded by another scheduled maintenance of equivalent work scope and detail
the current status of compliance with maintenance programme such that compliance with the aircraft maintenance programme can be established	at least until the aircraft or component scheduled maintenance has been superseded by other scheduled maintenance of equivalent work scope and detail
the current status of airworthiness directives issued pursuant to article 41(1)(a) applicable to the aircraft and components	at least 12 months after the aircraft or component has been permanently withdrawn from service
details of current modifications and repairs to the aircraft, engines, propellers and any other component vital to flight safety	at least 12 months after they have been permanently withdrawn from service

Operator's technical log
5. (1) An operator's technical log must contain the following information for each aircraft—
(a) information about each flight, necessary to ensure continued flight safety;
(b) the current aircraft certificate of release to service;
(c) the current maintenance statement giving the aircraft maintenance status of what scheduled and out of phase maintenance is next due, except where the CAA has given permission for the maintenance statement being kept elsewhere;
(d) all outstanding deferred defects rectifications that affect the operation of the aircraft; and
(e) any necessary guidance instructions on maintenance support arrangements.
(2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Sch. 7 para. 5(2) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 44
(3) An operator must ensure that the aircraft technical log is retained for 36 months after the date of the last entry.

SCHEDULE 8 FLIGHT CREW OF AIRCRAFT – LICENCES, RATINGS, QUALIFICATIONS AND MAINTENANCE OF LICENCE PRIVILEGES
Articles 152 to 159

PART 1 Flight Crew Licences

CHAPTER 1 General conditions

Recent experience condition
1. (1) In this Part, a reference to the “recent experience condition” in the privileges for aeroplane, helicopter and gyroplane licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.
(2) The condition is that the holder of a licence must not operate an aircraft carrying passengers—
(a) as pilot in command or co-pilot unless the holder has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least three take-offs, approaches and landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft of the same type or class or a full flight simulator representing that type or class; and
(b) as pilot in command at night unless the holder—
(i) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least one take-off, approach and landing at night as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft of the same type or class or a full flight simulator representing that type or class; or
(ii) holds an instrument rating.

Exception to the recent experience condition
2. (1) In this Part, a reference to the “recent experience exception” in the privileges for aeroplane and helicopter private pilot's licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.
(2) The condition is that—
(a) the intended flight will carry a single passenger who is also qualified to act as pilot in command on that flight; and
(b) the holder of the licence has informed the intended passenger that the holder does not meet the recent experience condition.

Excepted flights condition
3. (1) In this Part, a reference to the “excepted flights condition” in the privileges for aeroplane, helicopter, gyroplane and balloon and airship private pilot's licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.
(2) The condition is that the holder of a private pilot's licence may only fly on a public transport or commercial operations flight if it is a flight of the type mentioned in article 6(4a) of the ... Air Operations Regulation.
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 para. 3(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 83(2) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Remuneration condition
4. (1) In this Part, a reference to the “remuneration condition” in the privileges for aeroplane, helicopter, gyroplane and balloon and airship private pilot's licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.
(2) The condition is that—
(a) in the case of—
(i) instruction, the holder's licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate;
(ii) flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; and
(b) remuneration or other valuable consideration is received for—
(i) the provision of flight instruction for the same type of licence;
(ii) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for such a licence;
(iii) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to such a licence.

CHAPTER 2 United Kingdom Licences

SECTION 1 Aeroplane pilots

Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled—
(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly for the purposes of non-commercial operations as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(b) to fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of commercial operation—
(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—
(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and
(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or
(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;
(c) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers if—
(i) the recent experience condition is met; or
(ii) the recent experience exception is met;
(d) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes);
(e) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night where the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes);
(f) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.
(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) may not fly an aeroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—
(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(b));
(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(f)); or
(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled—
(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) which includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) and a night rating (aeroplanes) or night qualification (aeroplane);
(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aircraft is flying for the purposes of—
(i) commercial operation; or
(ii) public transport operation,
unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(c) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport until the age of 60 years only where it is certificated for single pilot operation;
(d) to fly such an aeroplane on any flight for the purpose of public transport after attaining the age of 60 years where the aeroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane;
(e) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A airspace where the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane);
(f) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane carrying passengers for the purpose of public transport where the recent experience condition is met.
(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) may not fly an aeroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(b)—
(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport; or
(b) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:
The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) except that, in paragraph (1)(c) of the privileges of that licence, the words “where it is certificated for single pilot operation” do not apply.

SECTION 2 Helicopter and gyroplane pilots

Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled—
(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(b) to fly such a helicopter for the purpose of commercial operation—
(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—
(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and
(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or
(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;
(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers if—
(i) the recent experience condition is met; or
(ii) the recent experience exception is met;
(d) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such a helicopter under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter);
(e) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night if the licence includes a night rating (helicopters);
(f) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.
(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) may not fly a helicopter mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—
(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(b));
(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(f)); or
(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled—
(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) which includes a night rating (helicopters);
(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aircraft is flying for the purposes of—
(i) commercial operation; or
(ii) public transport operation,
unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter on a flight for the purpose of public transport until the age of 60 years only where it is certificated for single pilot operation;
(d) to fly such a helicopter for the purpose of public transport after attaining the age of 60 years where the helicopter is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that helicopter;
(e) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such a helicopter under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter);
(f) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter carrying passengers for the purpose of public transport where the recent experience condition is met.
(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) may not fly a helicopter mentioned in paragraph (1)(b)—
(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport; or
(b) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:
The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) except that, in paragraph (1)(c) of the privileges of that licence, the words “only where it is certificated for single pilot operation” do not apply.

Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) is entitled—
(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any gyroplane of a type or a class specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(b) to fly such a gyroplane for the purpose of commercial operation—
(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—
(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and
(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or
(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;
(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane carrying passengers if the recent experience condition is met;
(d) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane at night if the licence includes a night rating (gyroplanes);
(e) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.
(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) may not fly a gyroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—
(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(b));
(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(e));
(c) under Instrument Flight Rules; or
(d) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) is entitled—
(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) which includes a night rating (gyroplanes);
(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of a gyroplane of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aircraft is flying for the purposes of—
(i) commercial operation; or
(ii) public transport operation,
unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport until the age of 60 years only where it is certificated for single pilot operation;
(d) to fly such a gyroplane on any flight for the purpose of public transport after attaining the age of 60 years where the gyroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that gyroplane;
(e) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane carrying passengers if the recent experience condition is met.
(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) may not fly a gyroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(b)—
(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport;
(b) under Instrument Flight Rules; or
(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) is entitled—
(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) which includes a night rating (helicopters) or a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) which includes a night rating (gyroplanes);
(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) and a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes), unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(c) only where the holder has undertaken such training and passed such flight examinations as the CAA may require, to fly a gyroplane for the purposes of commercial operations or public transport.
(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) may not fly a helicopter or gyroplane mentioned in the licences referred to in paragraph (1)(b)—
(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport; or
(b) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:
The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) except that in paragraph (1)(c) of the privileges of the United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) referred to in paragraph (1)(b) of that licence, the words “where it is certificated for single pilot operation” do not apply.

SECTION 3 Balloon and airship pilots

Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) is entitled—
(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of balloon or airship on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(b) to fly as pilot in command of such a balloon or airship at night if the licence includes a night rating (balloons and airships).
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 s. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(2)(a)(i)
(2) The holder of a Private Pilot’s Licence (Balloons and Airships) may not fly a balloon or airship mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—
(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation;
(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration;
(c) in a hot-air balloon with an envelope capacity of more than 3,400 m3 (120,069 ft3); or
(d) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 s. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(2)(a)(ii)

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) is entitled—
(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships);
(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence when the balloon is flying for the purpose of commercial operations, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
(c) to fly as pilot in command of any type of balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence for the purpose of the public transport of passengers where the holder has within the immediately preceding 90 days carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon at least three flights each of not less than five minutes duration.
(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) may not fly a balloon mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) or (c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1) unless permitted to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:
The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) is entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of airship on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the airship is flying for any purpose whatsoever.

SECTION 4 Other flight crew

Flight Navigator's Licence

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:
The holder of a Flight Navigator's Licence is entitled to act as flight navigator in any non-Part-21 aircraft.
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 83(3) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight Engineer's Licence

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:
The holder of a Flight Engineer's Licence is entitled to act as flight engineer in any type of non-Part-21 aircraft specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.

Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence

Minimum age:

14 years

Privileges:
The holder of a Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence is entitled to operate radiotelephony apparatus in any aircraft if the stability of the frequency radiated by the transmitter is maintained automatically but is not entitled to operate the transmitter, or to adjust its frequency, except by the use of external switching devices.

CHAPTER 3 National Private Pilot's Licence

National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges and conditions:
(1) The holder of a National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled—
(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly for the purposes of non-commercial operations as pilot in command of any aeroplane for which a class rating is included in the licence provided that the total number of persons carried (including the pilot) does not exceed four, and the maximum certified take-off mass of the aeroplane does not exceed 2,000 kg;
(b) with the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which the aircraft is being flown, to fly such an aeroplane outside the United Kingdom;
(c) to fly such a microlight aeroplane or TMG for the purpose of commercial operation—
(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—
(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and
(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or
(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;
(d) otherwise than as provided by sub-paragraph (c), to fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of commercial operation where the excepted flights condition is met;
(e) to fly as pilot in command when carrying passengers if—
(i) the recent experience condition is met; or
(ii) the recent experience exception is met;
(f) to fly as pilot in command of any such aeroplane at night where the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes);
(g) to fly as pilot in command of any such aeroplane under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating; and
(h) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(2)(b)(i)
(2) The holder of a National Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) may not fly—
(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraphs (1)(c) or (1)(d));
(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(h)); or
(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Light Aircraft Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(2)(b)(ii)(aa)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges and conditions:
(1) The holder of a Light Aircraft Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled—
(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly for the purposes of non-commercial operations as pilot in command of a single-engine helicopter with a maximum take-off mass of 2,000 kg or less for which a class or type rating is included in the licence provided that the total number of persons carried (including the pilot) does not exceed four, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(2)(b)(ii)(bb)
(b) with the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which the aircraft is being flown, to fly such a helicopter outside the United Kingdom;
(c) to fly such a helicopter for the purpose of commercial operation where the excepted flights condition is met;
(d) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers if—
(i) the recent experience condition is met; or
(ii) the recent experience exception is met.
(2) The holder of a Light Aircraft Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) may not fly a helicopter mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—
(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(c));
(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration;
(c) under Instrument Flight Rules;
(d) at night; or
(e) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),
unless authorised to do so by the CAA.
(3) A National Private Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) granted before 1st October 2025 is deemed to be a Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters).
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(2)(b)(ii)(cc)

PART 2 Ratings, certificates and qualifications

CHAPTER 1 Ratings, certificates and qualifications which may be included in United Kingdom licences but not in National Private Pilot's Licences

SECTION 1 Aircraft ratings
1. When included in a pilot licence an aircraft rating entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot of aircraft of the types and classes specified in the aircraft rating and different types and classes of aircraft may be specified in respect of different privileges of a licence.
2. When included in a Flight Engineer's Licence an aircraft rating entitles the holder of the licence to act as flight engineer only of aircraft of a type specified in the aircraft rating.

Single Engine (Gyroplanes)
A Single Engine (Gyroplanes) rating entitles the holder to fly as pilot in command of the type of gyroplane for which the holder passed the licence skill test for the rating, except where the holder has—
(a) completed the applicable differences training with a Flight Instructor (Gyroplanes), as specified in CAA Standards Document 44 Revision 6, dated October 2025; and
(b) entered the details of the training in sub-paragraph (a) in the holder’s personal flying logbook.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 s. 1 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(a)(i)

SECTION 2 Other ratings

Instrument rating (aeroplane)
An instrument rating (aeroplane) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying under the Instrument Flight Rules.

Instrument rating (helicopter)
An instrument rating (helicopter) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter flying under the Instrument Flight Rules.

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 s. 2 omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(a)(ii)

Night rating (helicopters)
A night rating (helicopters) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at night.

Night rating (gyroplanes)
A night rating (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) to act as pilot in command of a gyroplane at night.

Night rating (balloons and airships)
A night rating (balloons and airships) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) to act as pilot in command of a balloon or an airship at night.

SECTION 3 Instructor certificates

Flight instructor certificate (aeroplane)
A flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the certificate for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.

Restrictions – restricted period
(1) Until the holder of a flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 solo flights by students, the privileges of the certificate are restricted.
(2) The restrictions will be removed from the certificate when the requirements specified in paragraph (1) have been met ... .
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 45(a)

Restrictions – restricted privileges
(1) The privileges are restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) approved for this purpose—
(a) flight instruction for—
(i) the issue of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) and a United Kingdom Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes); and
(ii) class and type ratings for single-engine aeroplanes,
other than for the approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross country flights by day or by night; and
(b) night flying instruction.

Flight instructor certificate (helicopter)
A flight instructor certificate (helicopter) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying helicopters of such types as may be specified in the certificate for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.

Restrictions – restricted period
(1) Until the holder of a flight instructor certificate (helicopter) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 student pilot solo flight exercises, the privileges of the certificate are restricted.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 45(b)(i)
(2) The restrictions will be removed from the certificate when the requirements specified in paragraph (1) have been met ... .
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 45(b)(ii)

Restrictions – restricted privileges
(1) The privileges are restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor certificate (helicopter) approved for this purpose—
(a) flight instruction for—
(i) the issue of a Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) and a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters); and
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 s. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(a)(iii)(aa)
(ii) type ratings for single-engine helicopters,
other than for the approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross country flights by day or by night; and
(b) night flying instruction, provided the holder has undergone such training as the CAA may require.

Flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes)
A flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying gyroplanes of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose.

Flight instructor certificate (restricted) (gyroplanes)
A flight instructor certificate (restricted) (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying gyroplanes of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose, but—
(a) such instruction must only be given under the supervision of a person who—
(i) is present—
(aa) during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which instruction is to begin and end;
(bb) in flight within the circuit pattern of the same aerodrome; or
(cc) in flight within the local flying area specified by the flight training organisation; and
(ii) is the holder of a flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes) entitled to instruct on an aircraft of the same type or class as the aircraft on which the instruction is being given;
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 s. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(a)(iii)(bb)
(b) does not entitle the holder of the licence to give directions to a person undergoing instruction in respect of the performance of that person's first—
(i) solo flight;
(ii) solo flight by night;
(iii) solo cross-country flight otherwise than by night; or
(iv) solo cross-country flight by night.

Type rating instructor certificate (multi-pilot aeroplane)
A type rating instructor certificate (multi-pilot aeroplane) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.

Type rating instructor certificate (helicopter)
A type rating instructor certificate (helicopter) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a helicopter type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.

Class rating instructor certificate (single-pilot aeroplane)
A class rating instructor certificate (single-pilot aeroplane) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a type or class rating for single-pilot aeroplanes.

Instrument rating instructor certificate (aeroplane)
An instrument rating instructor certificate (aeroplane) entitles the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes).

Instrument rating instructor certificate (helicopter)
An instrument rating instructor certificate (helicopter) entitles the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (helicopter) for a United Kingdom licence.

CHAPTER 2 Aircraft and instructor ratings and certificates which may be included in United Kingdom aeroplane pilot licences and in National Private Pilot's Licences (Aeroplanes)

Night rating (aeroplanes)
A night rating (aeroplanes) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.

Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)
An instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying under the Instrument Flight Rules except—
(a) in Class A airspace; or
(b) when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place where the flight visibility below cloud is less than 1,500 metres.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(b)(i)

Aerobatic rating (aeroplanes)
An aerobatic rating (aeroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane whilst conducting aerobatic manoeuvres.

Microlight class rating
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) to (6) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a microlight class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any microlight aeroplane.
(2) If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of any single seat microlight aeroplane.
(3) If the aeroplane ...—
(a) has three axis controls and the holder's previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with flexwing or weightshift controls;
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(3)
(b) has flexwing or weightshift controls and the holder's previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with three axis controls; ...
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(4)
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 omitted (19.8.2021) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(5)
(c) has a maximum take-off mass of more than 475kg (or more than 495kg if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane) and the holder’s previous training and experience has only been in a microlight aeroplane with a maximum take-off mass of 475kg or less (or 495kg or less if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane);
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(6)
(d) has a maximum take-off mass of 600kg or less (or 650kg or less if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane) and the holder’s previous training and experience has only been in aeroplanes with a maximum take-off mass of more than 600kg (or more than 650kg if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane);
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(7)
(e) is fitted with—
(i) a tricycle undercarriage;
(ii) a tailwheel;
(iii) a supercharger or turbo-charger;
(iv) a variable pitch propeller;
(v) one or more Electronic Flight Information Systems;
(vi) an autopilot system;
(vii) more than one engine; or
(viii) an electric engine,
and the holder does not have training or experience in aeroplanes with such fitted features; or
(f) has a maximum continuous cruising speed in excess of 140 knots indicated airspeed and the holder does not have experience in aeroplanes capable of that speed,
before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must complete appropriate differences training.
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 omitted (19.8.2021) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(2)
(4) The differences training mentioned in paragraph (3) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder's personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.
(5) Where the aeroplane is to be operated from water during take-off and landing, before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must—
(a) complete appropriate differences training; and
(b) attain a pass in the Private or Professional Seamanship examination.
(6) The differences training mentioned in paragraph (5) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder's personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.

Single Engine Piston (SEP) class rating
(1) Subject to paragraphs (3) to (6), a Single Engine Piston (SEP) class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any single engine piston aeroplane.
(2) A single engine piston rating shall be issued as being valid for either—
(a) aeroplanes designed to operate from land; or
(b) aeroplanes designed to operate from water.
(3) Where the rating is included in an NPPL(A), the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft must not exceed 2,000 kilograms.
(4) The SEP rating includes the microlight class rating but before exercising privileges as pilot in command of a microlight aeroplane, the holder of an SEP rating must—
(a) receive appropriate differences training in microlight aeroplanes; and
(b) comply with the differences training requirements specified for the holder of a microlight aeroplane class rating as appropriate to the aircraft flown.
(5) Where the rating is endorsed “single seat only” in the current certificate of revalidation, the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of a single seat aeroplane.
(6) Before exercising the privileges of the SEP rating, the holder must complete appropriate differences training where—
(a) the aeroplane is fitted with—
(i) a tricycle undercarriage;
(ii) a tailwheel;
(iii) a supercharger or turbo-charger;
(iv) a variable pitch propeller;
(v) retractable landing gear;
(vi) a cabin pressurisation system; or
(b) in respect of an NPPL(A) licence endorsed with an SEP rating, the aeroplane has a maximum continuous cruising speed in excess of 140 knots indicated airspeed.
(7) The differences training mentioned in paragraphs (4) and (6) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane used for the training, recorded in the licence holder’s personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.
(8) An aircraft rating endorsed on a licence as ‘SSEA’ prior to 1st October 2025 is deemed to be an SEP rating except that the SEP rating is deemed limited to aeroplanes designed to operate from land unless the holder—
(a) had, prior to 1st October 2025, completed appropriate differences training relating to take off and landing on water; and
(b) has passed the Private or Professional Seamanship examination.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(b)(ii)

TMG class rating
(1) Subject to paragraph (2) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a TMG class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any TMG.
(2) If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of a single seat TMG.
(3) An aircraft rating endorsed on a licence as “SLMG” prior to 1st October 2025 is deemed to be a TMG class rating.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(b)(iii)(bb)
Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(b)(iii)(aa)

Flight instructor's certificate (microlight)
A flight instructor's certificate (microlight) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes with the same type of control system for which the holder's licence is endorsed with a flight instructor's certificate.

Flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight)
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes with the same type of control system for which the holder's licence is endorsed with a flight instructor's certificate.
(2) Such instruction must only be given under the supervision of a person present during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to begin and end and holding a pilot's licence endorsed with a flight instructor's certificate entitling that person to instruct on a microlight aeroplane with the same type of control system on which instruction is being given.
(3) A flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight) does not entitle the holder of the licence to authorise the person undergoing instruction to perform a first solo flight or first solo cross-country flight.

Flight instructor’s certificate (TMG)
(1) A flight instructor’s certificate (TMG) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying TMGs.
(2) A flight instructor’s certificate endorsed on a licence as “FI (SLMG)” prior to 1st October 2025 is deemed to be a flight instructor’s certificate (TMG).
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(b)(iv)

CHAPTER 3 Ratings which may be included in Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licences (Helicopters)

Helicopter type rating
A helicopter type rating for a single engine helicopter with a maximum total weight authorised of 2,000kg or less may be included in a Light Aircraft Pilot’s Licence (Helicopters) granted under Part 6.
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 3 substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(3)(c)

PART 3 Maintenance of Licence Privileges

CHAPTER 1 Requirement for revalidation and renewal

Validity, revalidation and renewal of certificates and ratings
1. (1) The ratings and certificates listed in column 1 of the following tables—
(a) have the validity listed in the corresponding entry in column 2;
(b) are revalidated in accordance with the corresponding entry in column 3; and
(c) are renewed in accordance with the corresponding entry in column 4.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph 1(1)(a)—
(a) ratings and certificates are valid from the date of issue until the end of the period specified in column 2 after the end of the month in which the rating or certificate was issued;
(b) as regards revalidation the rating and certificate are valid from the end of the period in paragraph (a) for the period specified in column 2—
(i) in relation to any rating or certificate that may be revalidated by meeting flight or instruction experience requirements, provided those experience requirements have been met; or
(ii) subject to sub-paragraph (2A), in relation to any other rating or certificate, provided that the rating or certificate is revalidated within the period of three months preceding the end of the period in paragraph (a); and
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 1(2)(b) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(1)(a)
(c) as regards renewal, the new rating or certificate is valid from the date of issue until the end of the period specified in column 2 after the end of the month in which the rating or certificate was renewed.
(2A) Where a rating or certificate is revalidated by a proficiency check prior to the last 3 months of the period specified in column 2, the period specified in column 2 commences from the end of the month in which the revalidation occurred.
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 1(2A) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(1)(b)
(3) For the purposes of paragraphs 1(1)(b) and (c), a reference in the following tables to—
(a) a paragraph of Part-FCL is a reference to the applicant needing to complete the requirements specified in that paragraph; and
(b) completing training or passing a proficiency check are references to the applicant needing to take the specified action.

Table 1 Ratings for Aeroplanes
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Single-engine piston (SEP) class rating (land), TMG and SLMG rating	24 months	FCL.740.A (b)(1) and (4) of Part-FCL, provided a SEP aeroplane with three axis control system is used. Where both a SEP (land) and a TMG or SLMG rating are held, the requirements may be completed in either class and achieve revalidation of both ratings.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Single-engine piston (SEP) class rating (sea)	24 months	FCL.740.A (b)(1) and (4) of Part-FCL, provided a SEP aeroplane with three axis control system is used.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Single-engine turbo-prop (SET) aeroplanes class rating	24 months	FCL.740.A (b)(3) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Multi-engine piston (MEP) class rating	12 months	FCL.740.A (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Any type rating	12 months	FCL.740.A (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.

Table 2 Ratings for Helicopters
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any type rating	12 months	FCL 740.H (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.

Table 3 Ratings for Gyroplanes
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any single engine class rating	24 months	(a) 12 hours flight time in the relevant class within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including— (i) 6 hours as pilot in command; (ii) 12 take-offs and landings; and (iii) a one-hour flight with the holder of a Flight Instructor certificate (Gyroplanes); or (b) complete such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Table 4
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 1(3) Table 4 omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(a)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Table 5 Ratings for Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons)
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating, where used in connection with public transport	13 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Any rating, where used in connection with commercial operation	13 months	Have such flight experience as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 6 Ratings for Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships)
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating	12 months	FCL.740.As (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.

Table 7 Ratings for Flight Engineers and Flight Navigator's Licence
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating for Flight Navigator's Licence	13 months	(a) complete the appropriate proficiency check; and (b) have such experience as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Flight engineer type rating	12 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 8 Instrument and instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) ratings
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Instrument rating (aeroplane)	12 months	FCL.625.A of Part-FCL.	FCL.625 (c) and (d) of Part-FCL.
Instrument rating (helicopter)	12 months	FCL.625.H of Part-FCL.	FCL.625 (c) and (d) of Part-FCL.
Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)	25 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 9 Instructor certificates
Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Fight instructor certificate (aeroplanes)	36 months	FCL.940.FI (a) and (b) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.FI (c) of Part-FCL.
Flight instructor certificate (helicopters)	36 months	FCL.940.FI (a) and (b) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.FI (c) of Part-FCL.
Flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes)	36 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Type rating instructor certificate (multi-pilot aeroplane)	36 months	FCL.940.TRI (a) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.TRI (b) of Part-FCL.
Type rating instructor certificate (helicopter)	36 months	FCL.940.TRI (a) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.TRI (b) of Part-FCL.
Class rating instructor certificate (single-pilot aeroplane)	36 months	FCL.940.CRI (a) and (b) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.CRI (c) of Part-FCL.
Instrument rating instructor certificate (aeroplane)	36 months	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.
Instrument rating instructor certificate (helicopter)	36 months	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.

Issue of certificate of revalidation
2. Except in the case of holders of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships), a certificate of revalidation must be issued where any of the requirements for revalidation or renewal in the tables in paragraph 1 have been met.

Form of certificate of revalidation
3. A certificate of revalidation must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—
(a) the functions to which the certificate relates;
(b) the date on which it was signed;
(c) that on the date on which the certificate was signed the relevant requirements for revalidation or renewal in the tables in paragraph 1 have been met;
(d) where the relevant requirements for revalidation or renewal in the tables in paragraph 1 involve—
(i) the gaining of experience, the type or types of aircraft in which the experience was gained;
(ii) the taking of a test or proficiency check, the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test was conducted.

CHAPTER 2 Requirement for a Certificate of Revalidation to maintain the validity of, or renew, a rating specified in Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 2
4. (1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 157 for an SEP class rating, a microlight class rating or a TMG class rating must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—
(a) the rating to which the certificate relates;
(b) that on a specified date the holder has satisfied the relevant requirements for issue in accordance with Table A and Table B;
(c) the specified date; and
(d) the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with sub-paragraph (3).
Table A – Requirements for issue of a certificate of revalidation for an aeroplane class rating included in Chapter 2 of Part 2
	Circumstances	Requirements
1	On initial issue by the CAA	The holder of the licence has passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the licence application form in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought
2	There is a current valid certificate of revalidation for the rating	The holder of the licence has— (a) passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought; or (b) produced their personal flying log book to the authorised person signing the certificate and satisfied the authorised person that the holder satisfied the experience requirements specified in paragraph (2)
3	The last previous certificate of revalidation for the rating expired less than five years before the date on which the new certificate is to be signed	The holder of the licence has passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought
4	The last previous certificate of revalidation for the rating expired five years or more before the date on which the new certificate is to be signed	The holder of the licence has passed— (a) a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought; and (b) an oral theoretical knowledge examination conducted by the authorised examiner as part of the NPPL General Skill Test
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 para. 4(1) Table A substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(b)(i)(cc)
Table B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 para. 4(1) Table B omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(b)(i)(dd)
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 para. 4(1) substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(b)(i)(aa)
Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 para. 4(1) substituted (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(b)(i)(bb)
(2) The experience requirements for the issue of a certificate of revalidation for a class rating in accordance with paragraph 2(b) of Table A are that the holder has, as a pilot in aeroplanes for which there is a class rating included in the licence and within the period of validity of the current certificate of revalidation for the rating—
(a) flown at least 12 hours which includes at least 6 hours as pilot in command;
(b) completed at least 12 take-offs and at least 12 landings;
(c) flown at least six hours in the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating;
(d) undertaken at least one hour of flying training in an aeroplane with an instructor entitled to give instructions on aeroplanes of that class.
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 paras. 4(2), (2A) substituted for Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 para. 4(2) (1.10.2025) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(b)(ii)
(2A) Where all the experience requirements of paragraph (2) are met except those in paragraph (2)(d), a certificate of revalidation may be issued but must be endorsed ‘single seat only’.
(3) If the rating—
(a) has not expired, the new certificate is valid for 24 months from the end of the month which includes the expiry date of the existing certificate, except where the certificate is validated by a NPPL General Skill Test more than 3 months before the expiry date of the existing certificate, in which case the new certificate is valid for 24 months from the end of the month in which the test was taken;
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 Ch. 2 para. 4(3)(a) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(2)(a)
(b) has expired, the new certificate is valid for 24 months in addition to the remainder of the month in which the date of test falls.
5. (1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 157 for a flight instructor's certificate (SLMG), a flight instructor's certificate (microlight), or an flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight) must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—
(a) the certificate to which the certificate of revalidation relates;
(b) that on a specified date the holder has passed an appropriate test of the holder's ability to exercise the privileges of the certificate;
(c) the specified date; and
(d) the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with sub-paragraph (2).
(2) If the rating—
(a) has not expired, the new certificate is valid for 36 months from the end of the month which includes the expiry date of the existing certificate, except where the test is taken more than 3 months before the expiry date of the existing certificate, in which case the new certificate is valid for 36 months from the end of the month in which the test was taken;
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 5(2)(a) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(2)(b)
(b) has expired, the new certificate is valid for 36 months in addition to the remainder of the month in which the date of test falls.
6. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 6 omitted (1.10.2025) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2025 (S.I. 2025/850), arts. 1(2), 16(4)(b)(iii)

SCHEDULE 9 PUBLIC TRANSPORT – OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS
Articles 114(2) and (3), 116(5) and 117(4)

PART 1 Information and Instructions which must be included in an Operations Manual
1. Information and instructions relating to the following matters must be included in an operations manual—
(a) The number of the crew to be carried in the aircraft, on each stage of any route to be flown.
(b) The respective capacities in which the crew members are to act.
(c) Instructions as to the order and circumstances in which command is to be assumed by members of the crew.
(d) The respective duties of each member of the crew and the other members of the operating staff.
(e) The scheme referred to in article 175(1).
(f) Such technical detailed information concerning the aircraft, its engines and equipment and concerning the performance of the aircraft as may be necessary to enable the flight crew of the aircraft to perform their respective duties.
(g) The manner in which the quantities of fuel and oil to be carried by the aircraft are to be computed and records of fuel and oil carried and consumed on each stage of the route to be flown are to be maintained (and the instructions must take account of all circumstances likely to be encountered on the flight, including the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines).
(h) The manner in which the quantity, if any, of oxygen and oxygen equipment to be carried in the aircraft for the purpose of complying with Scale L1 or L2 in Part 1 of Schedule 6 is to be computed.
(i) The check system to be followed by the crew of the aircraft before and on take-off, on landing and in an emergency, so as to ensure that the operating procedures contained in the operations manual and in the flight manual or performance schedule for the aircraft are complied with.
(j) The circumstances in which a radio watch is to be maintained.
(k) The circumstances in which oxygen is to be used by the crew of the aircraft, and by passengers.
(l) Subject to paragraph 2, communication, navigational aids, aerodromes, local regulations, in-flight procedures, approach and landing procedures and such other information as the operator considers necessary for the proper conduct of flight operations (which must be contained in a route guide, which may be in the form of a separate volume).
(m) The reporting in flight to the notified authorities of meteorological observations.
(n) Subject to paragraph 2, the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stages of the route to be flown (which must not be lower than any which may be applicable under the law of the United Kingdom or of the countries whose territory is to be flown over) and any planned diversion from that route.
(o) The required information referred to in article 131(2).
(p) Emergency flight procedures, including procedures for the instruction of passengers in the position and use of emergency equipment and procedures to be adopted when the pilot in command of the aircraft becomes aware that another aircraft or a vessel is in distress and needs assistance.
(q) In the case of aircraft intended to fly at an altitude of more than 49,000 feet the procedures for the use of cosmic radiation detection equipment.
(r) The labelling and marking of dangerous goods, the manner in which the dangerous goods must be loaded on or suspended beneath an aircraft, the responsibilities of members of the crew for the carriage of dangerous goods and the action to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving dangerous goods.
(s) Such detailed information about any permission granted to the operator under article 78A(2) as may be necessary to enable the pilot in command of the aircraft to determine whether article 69(8)(b) can be complied with.
Word in Sch. 9 Pt. 1 para. 1(s) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 47
(t) Procedures for the operation of any airborne collision avoidance system carried on the aircraft.
(u) The establishment and maintenance of an accident prevention and flight safety programme.
(v) In the case of a helicopter, the maximum approved passenger seating configuration.
2. In relation to any flight which is not one of a series of flights between the same two places and to the extent that it is not practicable to comply with sub-paragraphs 1(l) and 1(n), it is sufficient if the manual contains such information and instructions as will enable the equivalent data to be ascertained before take-off.

PART 2 Information and Instructions which must be included in a Training Manual
1. The following information and instructions must be included in a training manual—
(a) The manner in which the training, practice and periodical tests required under article 114(2) and specified in Part 3 of this Schedule are to be carried out.
(b) The minimum qualifications and experience which an operator requires of persons appointed by the operator to give or to supervise the training, practice and periodical tests.
(c) The type of training, practice and periodical tests which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise.
(d) The type of aircraft for which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise the said training, practice and periodical tests.
(e) The minimum qualifications and experience required for each member of the crew undergoing the required training, practice and periodical tests.
(f) The current syllabus for, and specimen forms for recording, the required training, practice and periodical tests.
(g) The manner in which instrument flight conditions and engine failure are to be simulated in the aircraft in flight.
(h) The extent to which the required training and testing is permitted in the course of flights for the purpose of public transport.
(i) The use to be made in the required training and testing of apparatus approved for the purpose by the CAA.

PART 3 Required Crew Training, Experience, Practice and Periodical Tests

Crew
1. (1) The training, experience, practice and periodical tests required under article 114(2) for members of the crew of an aircraft to which that paragraph applies must be as follows.
(2) Every member of the crew must have—
(a) been tested by or on behalf of the operator as to the crew member's knowledge of the use of the emergency and life saving equipment required to be carried in the aircraft on the flight and have a valid test result;
(b) practised under the supervision of the operator or of a person appointed by the operator for the purpose, within the test validity period, the carrying out of the duties required of the crew member in case of an emergency occurring to the aircraft—
(i) in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight; or
(ii) in apparatus approved by the CAA for the purpose and controlled by a person so approved by the CAA.

Pilots
2. (1) Every pilot included in the flight crew who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator—
(a) as to the pilot's competence to perform the pilot's duties while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures in flight; and
(b) as to the pilot's competence to perform the pilot's duties in instrument flight conditions while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures in flight,
in each case in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight and including the use of the instruments and equipment provided in the aircraft, and have a valid test result.
(2) A pilot's ability to execute normal manoeuvres and procedures must be tested in the aircraft in flight.
(3) The other tests required by sub-paragraph (1) may be conducted either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.
(4) The tests specified in sub-paragraph (1)(b) when conducted in the aircraft in flight must be carried out either in actual instrument flight conditions or in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA.
(5) Every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating or who is not intended by the operator to fly in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules, even though the licence includes such a rating, must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator in flight in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight—
(a) as to the pilot's competence to act as pilot of that aircraft, while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and
(b) as to the pilot's competence to act as pilot of that aircraft while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures,
and have a valid test result.
(6) In relation to every pilot included in the flight crew who is seated at the flying controls during the take-off or landing and who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules—
(a) the pilot must have been tested as to the pilot's proficiency in using instrument approach-to-land systems of the type in use at the aerodrome of intended landing and any destination alternate aerodromes and have a valid test result; and
(b) the test required by sub-paragraph (a) must have been carried out—
(i) in flight in instrument flight conditions; or
(ii) in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA; or
(iii) under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.
(7) In the case of a helicopter, every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating but who is intended to fly at night under visual flight conditions, must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator, in a helicopter of the type to be used on the flight, as to the pilot's competence to act as pilot of that helicopter—
(a) while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and
(b) while executing specified manoeuvres and procedures in flight in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA,
and have a valid test result.
(8) Every pilot included in the flight crew and who is seated at the flying controls during take-off or landing must have carried out within the test validity period, at least three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the type to be used on the flight when seated at the flying controls.

Flight engineers
3. (1) Every flight engineer included in the flight crew must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator—
(a) as to the engineer's competence to perform the engineer's duties while executing normal procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight; and
(b) as to the engineer's competence to perform the engineer's duties while executing emergency procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight,
and have a valid test result.
(2) A flight engineer's ability to carry out normal procedures must be tested in an aircraft in flight and the other tests required by this paragraph may be conducted—
(a) in the aircraft in flight; or
(b) under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

Flight radiotelephony operators and flight navigators
4. Every flight radiotelephony operator and flight navigator whose inclusion in the flight crew is required under article 111(1)(a) must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator as to their competence to perform their duties in conditions corresponding to those likely to be encountered on the flight—
(a) in the case of a flight radiotelephony operator using radio equipment of the type installed in the aircraft to be used on the flight, and including a test of the operator's ability to carry out emergency procedures; and
(b) in the case of a flight navigator, using equipment of the type to be used in the aircraft on the flight for purposes of navigation,
and have a valid test result.

Pilot in Command of Aircraft
5. (1) The pilot designated as pilot in command of the aircraft for the flight must have demonstrated to the satisfaction of the operator within the test validity period that the pilot has adequate knowledge of the route to be taken, the aerodromes of take-off and landing, and any destination alternate aerodromes, including in particular the pilot's knowledge of the following which are relevant to the route—
(a) the terrain;
(b) the seasonal meteorological conditions;
(c) the meteorological, communications and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;
(d) the search and rescue procedures; and
(e) the navigational facilities.
(2) In determining whether a pilot's knowledge of the matters referred to in sub-paragraph (1) is sufficient to render the pilot competent to perform the duties of pilot in command on the flight, the operator must take into account the pilot's flying experience in conjunction with the following—
(a) the experience of other members of the intended flight crew;
(b) the influence of terrain and obstructions on departure and approach procedures at the aerodromes of take-off and intended landing and at destination alternate aerodromes;
(c) the similarity of the instrument approach procedures and let-down aids to those with which the pilot is familiar;
(d) the dimensions of runways which may be used in the course of the flight in relation to the performance limits of aircraft of the type to be used on the flight;
(e) the reliability of meteorological forecasts and the probability of difficult meteorological conditions in the areas to be traversed;
(f) the adequacy of the information available regarding the aerodrome of intended landing and any destination alternate aerodromes;
(g) the nature of air traffic control procedures and the familiarity of the pilot with such procedures;
(h) the influence of terrain on route conditions and the extent of the assistance obtainable en-route from navigational aids and air-to-ground communication facilities; and
(i) the extent to which it is possible for the pilot to become familiar with unusual aerodrome procedures and features of the route by means of ground instruction and training devices.

Deemed compliance
6. (1) For the purposes of paragraph 2(1), 2(5) or 3(1) a pilot or flight engineer is deemed to have complied with the specified requirements in paragraphs 2(1)(b), 2(5)(b) or 3(1)(b) within the test validity period if—
(a) they have qualified in accordance with the specified requirements on at least two occasions within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight; and
(b) such occasions are separated by an interval of not less than four months.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph 5(1) a pilot is deemed to have complied with the specified requirements if, having become qualified to act as pilot in command on flights between the same places over the same route more than 13 months before commencement of the flight, the pilot has within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight flown as pilot of an aircraft between those places over that route.

Contents of records
7. The records required to be maintained by an operator under article 114(3) must be accurate and up-to-date records kept so as to show, on any date, in relation to each person who has during the period of two years immediately preceding that date flown as a member of the crew of any public transport aircraft operated by that operator—
(a) the date and detailed information about each test required by this Part and undergone by that person during the period, including the name and qualifications of the examiner;
(b) the date on which that person last practised the carrying out of duties referred to in paragraph 1(2);
(c) the operator's conclusions, based on each such test and practice as to that person's competence to perform that person's duties; and
(d) the date and detailed information about any decision taken by the operator during the period in accordance with paragraph 5(1), including detailed information about the evidence on which that decision was based.

Production of records to authorised person
8. The operator must, whenever called on to do so by any authorised person—
(a) produce for the inspection of any such person all records referred to in paragraph 7;
(b) supply to any such person all such information that person may require in connection with any such records; and
(c) produce for inspection by any such person all log books, certificates, papers and other documents, whatsoever which may reasonably be required to be seen for the purpose of determining whether such records are complete or of verifying the accuracy of their contents.

Supply of records to crew member
9. At the request of any person for whom the operator is required to keep records under this Part, the operator must supply to that person, or to any other operator of aircraft for the purpose of commercial or public transport by whom that person may subsequently be employed, detailed information about any qualifications in accordance with this Schedule obtained by such person whilst in the operator's service.

Definitions and validity periods
10. For the purposes of this Part—
(a) “visual flight conditions” means weather conditions such that the pilot is able to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;
(b) “instrument flight conditions” means weather conditions such that the pilot is unable to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;
(c) a “valid test result” is a test result—
(i) where the person tested met the minimum standard set in relation to the test; and
(ii) the test validity period has not expired in relation to that test;
(d) “test validity period”, subject to paragraph 6, means a period commencing with the date of test and ending—
(i) in the case of paragraph 2(8), three months;
(ii) in the case of paragraphs 2(1)(b), 2(5)(b), 2(6)(a), 2(7)(b) and 3(1)(b), six months; and
(iii) in the case of paragraphs 1, 2(1)(a), 2(5)(a), 2(7)(a), 3(1)(a), 4 and 5(1), 13 months,
after the end of the month in which the test was taken.

SCHEDULE 10 DOCUMENTS TO BE CARRIED
Articles 229(2) and 235(3)

Circumstances in which documents are to be carried
1. Subject to paragraph 3, the following documents must be carried—
(a) on a public transport flight—
(i) Document A;
(ii) Document B;
(iii) Document C;
(iv) Document D;
(v) Document E;
(vi) Document F;
(vii) Document H; and
(viii) if the flight is international air navigation, Document G and Document I;
(b) on a non-commercial flight or commercial operation flight which is international air navigation—
(i) Document A;
(ii) Document B;
(iii) Document C;
(iv) Document E;
(v) Document F;
(vi) Document G; and
(vii) Document I;
(c) on a flight made in accordance with the terms of a permission granted to the operator under article 78A(2), Document J.
Word in Sch. 10 para. 1(c) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(a)

Description of documents
2. For the purposes of this Schedule—
“Document A” means the licence in force under the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 for the aircraft radio station installed in the aircraft;
“Document B” means, in the case of a non-Part-21 aircraft, the national certificate of airworthiness in force for the aircraft;
“Document C” means the licences of the members of the flight crew of the aircraft;
“Document D” means one copy of the load sheet, if any, required by article 124 for the flight;
“Document E” means one copy of each national airworthiness review certificate required by article 49, if any, in force for the aircraft;
“Document F” means the technical log or approved record, if any, in which entries are required to be made under article 227;
“Document G” means the certificate of registration in force for the aircraft;
“Document H” means those parts of the operations manual, if any, required by article 116(4)(c) to be carried on the flight;
“Document I” means a copy of the notified procedures to be followed by the pilot in command of an intercepted aircraft, and the notified visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;
“Document J” means the permission, if any, granted for the aircraft under article 78A(2).
2006 c.36.
Word in Sch. 10 para. 2 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 84 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 10 para. 2 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(b)

Exceptions
3. (1) If the certificate of airworthiness includes the flight manual for the aircraft, ... with the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 116 applies need not carry the flight manual as part of Document B.
Word in Sch. 10 para. 3(1) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(c)
(2) With the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 116 applies need not carry Document J if it carries an operations manual which includes the detailed information specified at paragraph 1(s) of Part 1 of Schedule 9.
(3) If a public transport flight is intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and does not include passage over the territory of any country other than the United Kingdom, the documents required under paragraph 1(a) may be kept at that aerodrome instead of being carried in the aircraft.
Sch. 10 para. 3(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(d)

Meaning of “international air navigation”
4. For the purposes of this Schedule—
“international air navigation” means any flight which includes passage over the territory of any country other than the United Kingdom, but does not include passage over any relevant overseas territory to which there is power to extend the Civil Aviation Act 1982 under section 108(1) of that Act.
Sch. 10 para. 4 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(e)

SCHEDULE 11 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE EQUIPMENT – RECORDS REQUIRED AND MATTERS TO WHICH THE CAA MAY HAVE REGARD
Article 206

PART 1 Records to be kept in accordance with Article 206(1)(a)
1. A record of any functional tests, flight checks and detailed information about any maintenance, repair, overhaul, replacement or modification.
2. Subject to paragraph 3, the record must be kept in a legible or a non-legible form. If the record is kept in a non-legible form it must be capable of being reproduced in a legible form and it must be so reproduced by the person required to keep the record if requested by an authorised person.
3. In any particular case the CAA may direct that the record is kept or be capable of being reproduced in such a form as it may specify.

PART 2 Records required in accordance with Article 206(5)(b)
1. Each record made by the apparatus provided in compliance with article 206(2) or (3) must be adequately identified and in particular must include—
(a) the identification of the aeronautical radio station;
(b) the date or dates on which the record was made;
(c) a means of determining the time at which each message or signal was transmitted or received;
(d) the identity of the aircraft to or from which and the radio frequency on which the message or signal was transmitted or received; and
(e) the time at which the record started and finished.

PART 3 Matters to which the CAA may have regard in granting an approval if apparatus in accordance with Article 206(6)
1. The purpose for which the apparatus is to be used.
2. The manner in which the apparatus has been specified and produced in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used.
3. The adequacy, in relation to the purpose for which the apparatus is to be used, of the operating parameters of the apparatus (if any).
4. The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be operated, installed, modified, maintained, repaired and overhauled.
5. The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be inspected.

SCHEDULE 12 INFORMATION AND INSTRUCTIONS WHICH MUST BE INCLUDED IN AN AERODROME MANUAL
Article 212(9)
1. The name and status of the accountable manager having corporate authority for ensuring that all operations activities can be financed and carried out to the standard required.
2. The names and status of other senior aerodrome operating staff and instructions as to the order and circumstances in which they may be required to act.
3. Details of the safety management system.
4. The system of aeronautical information service available.
5. Procedures for promulgating information concerning the aerodrome's state.
6. Procedures for the control of access, vehicles and work in relation to the aerodrome manoeuvring area and apron.
7. Procedures for the removal of disabled aircraft.
8. In the case of an aerodrome which has facilities for fuel storage, procedures for complying with article 220.
9. (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), plans to an appropriate scale which clearly depict the layout of runways, taxiways and aprons, aerodrome markings, aerodrome lighting if such lighting is provided, and the siting of any navigational aids within the runway strip.
(2) In the case of copies or extracts of the manual provided or made available to a member of the aerodrome operating staff, the plans must be of a scale reasonably appropriate for the purposes of article 212(9).
10. For an aerodrome in relation to which there is a notified instrument approach procedure, survey information sufficient to provide data for the production of aeronautical charts relating to that aerodrome.
11. Description, height and location of obstacles which infringe standard obstacle limitation surfaces, and whether they are lit.
12. Data for and method of calculation of declared distances and elevations at the beginning and end of each declared distance.
13. Method of calculating reduced declared distances and the procedure for their promulgation.
14. Details of surfaces and bearing strengths of runways, taxiways and aprons.
15. The system of the management of air traffic in the airspace associated with the aerodrome, including procedures for the co-ordination of traffic with adjacent aerodromes, except any such information or procedures already published in any manual of air traffic services.
16. Operational procedures for the routine and special inspection of the aerodrome manoeuvring area and aprons.
17. If operations are permitted during periods of low visibility, procedures for the protection of the runways during such periods.
18. Procedures for the safe integration of all aviation activities undertaken at the aerodrome.
19. Details of or reference to the bird control management plan.
20. Procedures for the use and inspection of the aeronautical ground lighting system, if such a system is provided.
21. The scale of rescue, first aid and fire service facilities, the aerodrome emergency procedures and procedures to be adopted in the event of temporary depletion of the rescue and fire service facilities.

SCHEDULE 13 PENALTIES
Article 265

PART 1 Provisions Referred to in Article 265(5)
CHAPTER 1
Article of Order	Subject matter
26(3)	Unqualified person not to cause or permit aircraft to be used for commercial air transport...
28(1)	Registered owner to inform the CAA of specified events
28(2)	Person who becomes the owner of aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must inform the CAA
42(1)(b)(ii)	Requirement to fly by day and in accordance with Visual Flight Rules
42(2)	Requirement for placard
63(1)	Copy of national airworthiness review certificate issued or extended to be sent to the CAA within 10 days
63(2)	A person to inform the CAA should the airworthiness review be inconclusive and not to issue or extend the certificate
70(1)(a)	Pilot to be secured in seat
70(4)	Operator not to permit helicopter rotor to be turned unless pilot at controls
. . .	. . .
. . .	. . .
113(1) and (2)	Requirements for accident prevention and flight safety programme
118(2)	Requirement to wear a survival suit
124(1)	Person supervising loading to prepare and sign load sheet and submit it for examination by pilot in command
124(2)	Carriage and preservation of load sheet
125(1)	Carriage of baggage
171	Minimum age for glider pilot
. . .	. . .
. . .	. . .
. . .	. . .
202	Unauthorised operation of aeronautical radio station
205(3)	Requirement to notify aeronautical radio station service
206(1)	Requirement to keep air traffic service equipment records
206(4)	Capability of recording apparatus
206(5)	Operation of recording apparatus
206(8) and (9)	Requirements where apparatus ceases to be capable of recording or becomes unserviceable
206(10) to (15)	Air traffic service equipment records
212(5)	Requirement to supply information
214(4)	Requirement for holder of public use licence to notify
215	Requirement for holder of public use licence to supply information to Secretary of State
216	Requirement to make air navigation facilities available
217(3)	Obstruction of or interference with aerodrome firefighter
226(6)	Preservation of airworthiness records
227(8)	Carriage and keeping of technical log or approved record
227(10)	Preservation of technical log or approved record
228	Requirement to keep personal flying log book
229(1), (2) and (4)	Documents to be carried
235(1), (2), (4) and (5)	Production of documents and records
236	Production of air traffic service equipment documents and records
238	Preservation of documents
249(5)	Requirement to inform CAA of departure from SERA or Rules of the Air
251(1)	Filing and approval of tariffs
253(3)	Requirement to surrender document to CAA
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(a)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(b)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(a) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(c)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(d)
CHAPTER 2
Provision of Part 21, Part M, Part 145, Part 66 or Part 147	Subject matter
21A.61	Instructions for the continued airworthiness by the holder of type certificate or restricted type certificate
21A.107	Variations to instructions for continued airworthiness by the holder of a minor change approval to type design
21A.120	Instructions for continued airworthiness by supplemental type certificate holder
21A.130	Requirement for statement of conformity
21A.147	Approval of changes to the approved production organisation
21A.180	Inspections to be permitted by holder of airworthiness certificate
21A.439	Production of repair parts
21A.441	Repair embodiment
21A.449	Instructions for continued airworthiness by holder of repair design approval
21A.721	Inspections to be allowed by holder of, or applicant for, a permit to fly
21A.729	Record keeping by the holder of the approval of the flight conditions
21A.805	Identification of critical parts
M.A.307	Transfer of aircraft continuing airworthiness records
M.A.401	Use of current maintenance data
M.A.402	Performance of maintenance
M.A.501	Installation of components
M.A.502	Component maintenance
M.A.504 (b),(c) and (d)	Control of unserviceable components
M.A.611	Maintenance standards
M.A.614	Maintenance records to be kept by approved maintenance organisation
M.A.617	Notification of changes to the approved maintenance organisation
M.A.713	Notification of changes to the approved continuing airworthiness organisation
M.A.714	Record keeping by continuing airworthiness management organisation
M.A.902(c)	Airworthiness review certificate to be returned
145.A.85	Notification of changes to the organisation
147.A.110	Records of instructors, examiners and assessors
147.A.125	Records
147.A.150	Notification of changes to the maintenance training organisation
CHAPTER 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(2)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 4
Provision of Part-FCL	Subject matter
ORA.GEN.130	Changes to organisations
ORA.ATO.120	Record keeping
CHAPTER 5
Provision of ... Air Operations Regulation	Subject matter
CAT.GEN.MPA.100(b)	Crew members' reporting and compliance responsibilities
CAT.GEN.MPA.100(b)(4) and (5)	Flight duty, duty and rest period records
CAT.GEN.MPA.190	Provision of documentation and records
CAT.OP.MPA.245	Meteorological conditions
CAT.OP.MPA.250(b)	Pilot in command not to take off unless external surfaces are clear
CAT.OP.MPA.260	Fuel and oil supply
CAT.OP.MPA.265	Take-off conditions
CAT.OP.MPA.285	Use of supplemental oxygen
CAT.OP.MPA.300	Approach and landing conditions
CAT.OP.MPA.305(a) and (b)	Commencement and continuation of approach
ORO.MLR.110	Requirement for journey log
SPA.LVO.125(b)	Low visibility operations – operating procedures
SPA.LVO.130(b)	Low visibility operations – minimum equipment
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(2)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 5 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(2)
CHAPTER 6
Provision of ... Aerodromes Regulation	Subject matter
ADR.OR.B.035(b)	Failure to return certificate after revocation or surrender
ADR.OR.B.060(a)	Failure to provide information, to notify changes or to comply with requirements or with provisions of aerodrome manual
ADR.OR.D.035	Failure to establish an adequate system of record keeping or to keep records
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 6 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(2)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 7
Provision of Part-NCC	Subject matter
NCC.GEN.120	Taxiing of aeroplanes
NCC.GEN.125	Rotor engagement — helicopters
NCC.GEN.130	Portable electronic devices
NCC.GEN.135	Information on emergency and survival equipment carried
NCC.GEN.140	Documents, manuals and information to be carried
NCC.OP.160	Use of headset
NCC.OP.205(a)	In-flight fuel management
CHAPTER 8
Provision of Part-NCO	Subject matter
NCO.GEN.115	Taxiing of aeroplanes
NCO.GEN.120	Rotor engagement — helicopters
NCO.GEN.125	Portable electronic devices
NCO.GEN.130	Information on emergency and survival equipment carried
NCO.GEN.135	Documents, manuals and information to be carried
NCO.GEN.150	Journey log
NCO.SPEC.120	Task specialist’s responsibilities
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 8 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 50
CHAPTER 9
Provision of Part-SPO	Subject matter
SPO.GEN.106	Task specialist’s responsibilities
SPO.GEN.115	Common language
SPO.GEN.120	Taxiing of aeroplanes
SPO.GEN.125	Rotor engagement
SPO.GEN.135	Information of emergency and survival equipment carried
SPO.GEN.140	Documents, manuals and information to be carried
SPO.OP.190	In-flight fuel management
SPO.OP.225	Operational limitations – hot air balloons
SPO.SPEC.HESLO.100	Standard operating procedures
SPO.SPEC.HESLO.105	Specific HESLO equipment
SPO.SPEC.HEC.100	Standard operating procedures
SPO.SPEC.HEC.105	Specific HEC equipment
SPO.SPEC.PAR.100	Standard operating procedures
SPO.SPEC.PAR.120	Flight over water
SPO.SPEC.ABF.100	Standard operating procedures
Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 9 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 51
CHAPTER 10
Provision of Part-ORO	Subject matter
ORO.GEN.135(b)	Continued validity of an AOC
ORO.GEN.215	Facility requirements
ORO.MLR.110	Journey log
ORO.MLR.115	Record-keeping
ORO.FTL.240	Nutrition
ORO.FTL.245	Records of home base, flight times, duty and rest periods
Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 10 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 6

PART 2 Provisions Referred to in Article 265(6)
CHAPTER 1
Article of Order	Subject matter
24(1)	Aircraft to be registered
32(1)	Aircraft not to fly unless it has nationality and registration marks
32(3)	Aircraft not to bear misleading marks
34(1)	Compliance with airworthiness directives
35	Requirement for certificate of release to service for Part-21 aircraft
36(8)	Holder of maintenance licence not to exercise privileges when unfit
42(1) (other than sub-paragraph (b)(ii))	Restrictions on purposes of flight by aircraft with national permit to fly
43(2)	Requirement for weighing and determining centre of gravity
43(3)	Requirement for weight schedule
43(4)	Preservation of weight schedule
44(2)	Requirement for certificate of release to service for non-Part-21 aircraft
44(5)	Requirement for certificate of release to service for equipment installed on or in a non-Part-21 aircraft after its overhaul, repair, modification or inspection
49	Aircraft not to fly without valid national airworthiness review certificate
51	Aircraft not to fly in specified circumstances
54(1)	Aircraft maintenance programme
55	Aircraft to be managed by approved continuing airworthiness management organisation and maintained by approved maintenance organisation
66	Required flight crew
67	Flight crew required by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
68	Pilot in command to be satisfied that flight can be safely completed
69	Pre-flight action by pilot in command of aircraft
70(1)(b), (2) and (3)	Pilots to remain at controls
71	Passengers to be seated and properly secured
72	Pilot in command to be satisfied that additional survival equipment carried
73	Passenger briefing by pilot in command
74	Pilot in command to demonstrate use of oxygen on commercial operation and non-commercial flights
75	Take-off and landing conditions
76	Aerodrome operating minima requirements for commercial operation and private aircraft
77(1) and (3) to (7)	Requirements for aircraft to carry equipment
78A(3)	Carriage of equipment
79	Operation of radio in aircraft
80	Requirement for— a) operation of airborne collision avoidance system b) training in operation of airborne collision avoidance system
81	Requirements concerning equipment when flying in North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace
82	Requirements concerning equipment when aircraft registered in United Kingdom flying in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace
83	Requirements concerning equipment when aircraft registered elsewhere than in United Kingdom flying in United Kingdom Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace
84	Requirements concerning equipment for aircraft registered in the United Kingdom flying in Required Navigation Performance airspace
85	Requirements concerning equipment for aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom flying in United Kingdom Required Navigation Performance airspace
86(1) to (5), (17) and (19)	Requirements for flying displays
87	Towing of gliders
88	Towing and picking up persons and articles other than gliders
89	Dropping of articles and animals
90(1) and (4) to (8)	Requirements for parachuting
90(2)	Person not to be dropped so as to endanger persons or property
91(1) and (4) to (7)	Requirements for aerial application
92	Requirements for balloons, gliders, kites and parascending parachutes and airships
93	Release of small balloons
. . .	. . .
94A(1)	Permission for unmanned aircraft flights over or near aerodromes
94BA(2)	Permission for unmanned aircraft flights over or near space sites
. . .	. . .
96	Requirements for rockets
105	Pilot in command to ensure demonstration of life jackets
106	Pilot in command to ensure crew, passengers and baggage secure
107	Pilot in command to ensure demonstration of use of oxygen on public transport flights
108	Pilots required on public transport flights by flying machines
109(1)	Pilots required on public transport flights by aeroplanes
110(1)	Pilots required on public transport flights by helicopters
111	Flight navigators or navigational equipment required on public transport flights
112(2) and (3)	Requirement to carry cabin crew
114	Operator's responsibilities in relation to crew
115	Operator's responsibilities in relation to routes and aerodromes
116	Operations manual requirements
117	Training manual requirements
119	Carriage and use of equipment Vibration health monitoring system to be operated in accordance with approved procedures
120(2)	Exits to be in working order
120(3)	Exits to be kept free of obstruction
121(2)	Operator to ensure marking of exits
122	Operator's duty concerning loading of public transport aircraft
127(1)	Requirement to comply with section 1 of Subpart C of Part-CAT
127(6) and (9)	Requirements for aeroplanes flying over water for public transport
128(2)	Public transport operating conditions and performance requirements for helicopters
128(6)	Requirements for helicopter on public transport flights flying over water
129	Requirements for helicopters carrying out a performance class 3 operation
130(1)(a)	Helicopter flying over water for public transport under national air operator's certificate on performance class 1 operation or performance class 2 operation
130(1)(b)	Helicopter flying over water under police air operator's certificate on a performance class 1 operation or performance class 2 operation
131	Aerodrome operating minima requirements for public transport aircraft registered in United Kingdom
132	Aerodrome operating minima requirements for public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in United Kingdom
133	Prohibition on A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operations and public transport flights at night and in specified meteorological conditions by aeroplane with one power unit registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
135	Police operations manual requirements
151(2) and (3)	Holder of licence which does not meet minimum standards of Chicago Convention to obtain permission of competent authority and not to fly in the United Kingdom without permission of the CAA
166(1)	Person not to act as member of flight crew when unfit
166(2)	Requirement to inform CAA of injury, illness or pregnancy
170(2)	Requirements for giving of flying instruction
175(3)	Operator's obligation to obtain flight time records of flight crew
176(2)	Flight crew member's obligation to inform operator of flight times
177	Flight times – responsibilities of flight crew
181	Duty of person in charge to be satisfied as to competence of controllers
182	Requirement for Manual of Air Traffic Services
183	Requirement to provide air traffic services
184(5)	Requirement to comply with air traffic direction
184(7)	Requirement to comply with provisional air traffic direction
185(4)	Requirement to comply with direction for airspace policy purposes
186	Use of radio callsigns at aerodromes
199(1)(a)	Requirement for flight information service officer's licence
199(1)(b)	Requirement to identify as flight information service officer
201	Requirement for flight information service manual
205(1)	Requirement for approval for air traffic service equipment
206(2)	Provision of recording apparatus
207	Requirement to use licensed or Government aerodrome
209(1)	Aerodrome operator permitting flying training or testing at aerodrome without adequate facilities
209(2)	Pilot in command conducting flying training or testing at aerodrome without adequate facilities
210	Lighting for helicopters flying for public transport at night
212(6)	Requirement to comply with aerodrome licence conditions
212(7)	Requirement to take reasonable steps to secure airspace safe for use by aircraft
212(8) to (12)	Requirements for aerodrome manual
220(1) and (2)	Obligations of person having management of fuel installation on an aerodrome
220(4) and (5)	Requirements to keep and produce records for fuel installation
221(1) and (3)	Requirements for aeronautical lights
222(2) to (5)	Requirements for lighting of en-route obstacles
223(2), (4) to (7) and (9)	Requirements for lighting of wind turbine generators in United Kingdom territorial waters
224(1) and (2)	Lights liable to endanger not to be exhibited
225	Lights which dazzle or distract not to be shone
225A(1), (3) and (6)	Permission for unmanned aircraft flights over or near space sites
226(1), (2), (3) and (5)	Requirements for log books for non-Part-21 aircraft
227(2)	Requirement for technical log
227(4)	Entries in technical log
227(7)	Certificate to be entered in technical log
231	Use of flight recording systems
232	Preservation of records of aeroplane flight data recorder
233	Preservation of records of helicopter flight data recorder
234	Preservation of records of helicopter cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder
239(4)	Requirement to comply with Restriction of Flying Regulations
239(5)	Requirement to leave restricted area
239(6)	Requirement to comply with instructions in restricted area or danger area
243	Smoking in aircraft
244	Requirement to comply with lawful commands of pilot in command of aircraft
245(a) and (b)	Acting in a disruptive manner
246	Stowaways
249(2)	Requirement to comply with Rules of the Air
260	Compliance with direction to make data available
263	Person not to obstruct or impede
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(a)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(a)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(a)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(b)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(c)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(d)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(e)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(f)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(b)(i) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 6
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(b)(ii) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 12(a)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(b)(iii) (with art. 13)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(g)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (6.9.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(2), 12(b)
CHAPTER 2
Provision of Part 21, Part M, Part 145, Part 66 or Part 147	Subject matter
21A.3(b) and (c)	Reporting of investigation of failures, malfunctions and defects
21A.3B(c)	Airworthiness directives – obligation to propose and make available corrective action
21A.129	Obligations of manufacturer
21A.165	Obligations of a production organisation approval holder
21A.727	Obligations of the holder of a permit to fly
M.A.202	Occurrence reporting
M.A.303	Carrying out airworthiness directives
M.A.305	Aircraft continuing airworthiness record system
M.A.306	Operator's technical log system
M.A.708	Continuing airworthiness management
M.A.710	Conduct of airworthiness review
145.A.50	Certification of release to service for maintenance
145.A.55	Maintenance records to be kept by organisation approved under Part 145
145.A.60	Occurrence reporting
CHAPTER 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 4
Provision of ... Air Operations Regulation	Subject matter
CAT.GEN.MPA.105(a) (7), (8), (10) and (12)	Responsibilities of pilot in command
CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a) to (e)	Preservation, production and use of flight recorder recordings
CAT.GEN.MPA.200(e)	Reporting of dangerous goods incidents and accidents
CAT.OP.MPA.175(b)	Flight preparation by pilot in command
CAT.OP.MPA.210(a)(1) and (2)	Flight crew to remain at station
CAT.OP.MPA.225	Crew and passengers to be secured
SPA.PBN.100	Requirement for Performance Based Navigation approval
SPA.MNPS.100	Requirement for Minimum Navigation Performance Specification approval
SPA.RVSM.100	Requirement for Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum approval
SPA.LVO.100	Requirement for low visibility operations approval
SPA.ETOPS.100	Requirement for extended range operations approval
SPA.NVIS.100	Requirement for night vision imaging systems approval for helicopter operations
SPA.HHO.100	Requirement for helicopter hoist operations approval
SPA.HEMS.100	Requirement for helicopter emergency medical service operations approval
SPA.HOFO.105	Approval for helicopter offshore operations
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 4 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 4 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 7
CHAPTER 5
Provision of ...Aerodromes Regulation	Subject matter
ADR.OR.B.005	Uncertificated operation of an ... aerodrome
ADR.OR.B.025(a)(1)	Failure to perform and document all required actions, inspections, tests, safety assessments or exercises
ADR.OR.B.030	Failure to comply with the scope and privileges defined in the terms attached to the aerodrome certificate
ADR.OR.B.040(c)	Failure to obtain prior approval for a change affecting the certificate or safety-critical aerodrome equipment or significantly affecting the aerodrome operator's management system, failure to operate under the conditions prescribed during such changes
ADR.OR.C 015	Failure to grant access to any facility, document or other material relevant to the activity subject to certification or declaration
ADR.OR.C 025	Failure to implement mandated safety measures
ADR.OR.E.005	Failure to establish and maintain an aerodrome manual
ADR.OPS.B.055	Failure to verify that organisations involved in storing and dispensing of fuel to aircraft have required procedures
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(d)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(d)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 6
Provision of SERA	Subject matter
2005	Flight to be in accordance with rules of the air
2010(a)	Pilot in command to be responsible for the operation of the aircraft
3105	Aircraft not to be flown below minimum heights
3110	Aircraft to be flown at cruising levels
3135	Aircraft not to be flown in formation flights except under pre-arrangements made between the pilots in command
3140	Unmanned free balloons to be operated so as to minimise hazards
3145	Aircraft not to be flown in prohibited and restricted areas
3201	Pilot in command to be responsible for taking action to avoid collisions
3205	Aircraft not to be flown in such proximity as to cause a collision hazard
3210 (other than (d)(4)(i) and (ii))	Aircraft to comply with rules as to right of way
3215	Aircraft flying at night to display lights
3220	Aircraft not to be flown in simulated instrument flight unless fully functioning dual controls installed and a safety pilot carried on board
3225	Aircraft operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome to observe other aerodrome traffic and conform to the pattern of traffic at the aerodrome
3230	Aircraft conducting water operations to comply with rules for avoiding collisions
3301	Aircraft to comply with signals
4001	A flight plan to be submitted before specified categories of flight
4020	An arrival report to be made to the appropriate air traffic services unit after landing
5005 (other than (g) and (i))	Aircraft operated under Visual Flight Rules to be operated according to the specified Visual Flight Rules
5010	Additional conditions to be observed by aircraft when flying under special Visual Flight Rules in control zones
5015	Instrument Flight Rules – Rules to be complied with by aircraft when flying under Instrument Flight Rules
5020	Instrument Flight Rules – Rules to be complied with by aircraft when flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace
5025	Instrument Flight Rules – Rules to be complied with by aircraft when flying under Instrument Flight Rules outside controlled airspace
6005	Aircraft operating in Class E airspace, Class F airspace or Class G airspace
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 6 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 53
CHAPTER 7
Provision of ... Aircrew Regulation	Subject matter
MED.A.020 (a) and (b)	Decrease in medical fitness
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 7 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(e) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 8
Provision of Part-NCC	Subject matter
NCC.GEN.105	Crew responsibilities
NCC.GEN.106	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority
NCC.GEN.145	Preservation, production and use of flight recorder recordings
NCC.OP.100	Use of aerodromes and operating sites
NCC.OP.110	Aerodrome operating minima — general
. . .	. . .
NCC.OP.112	Aerodrome operating minima — circling operations with aeroplanes
NCC.OP.115	Departure and approach procedures
NCC.OP.116	Performance-based navigation — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCC.OP.125	Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes — IFR flights
NCC.OP.130	Fuel scheme – aeroplanes and helicopters
NCC.OP.131	Fuel scheme - fuel or energy planning and in-flight replanning policy - aeroplanes and helicopters
NCC.OP.135	Stowage of baggage and cargo
NCC.OP.140	Passenger briefing
NCC.OP.145	Flight preparation
NCC.OP.150	Take-off alternate aerodromes — aeroplanes
NCC.OP.151	Destination alternate aerodromes — aeroplanes
NCC.OP.152	Destination alternate aerodromes — helicopters
NCC.OP.153	Destination alternate aerodromes — instrument approach procedures relying on GNSS
NCC.OP.155	Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking
NCC.OP.165	Carriage of passengers
NCC.OP.170	Securing of passenger compartment and galley(s)
NCC.OP.175	Smoking on board
NCC.OP.180	Meteorological conditions
NCC.OP.185	Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures
NCC.OP.190	Ice and other contaminants — flight procedures
NCC.OP.195	Take-off conditions
NCC.OP.200	Simulated situations in flight
NCC.OP.210	Use of supplemental oxygen
NCC.OP.220	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)
NCC.OP.225	Approach and landing conditions
NCC.OP.230	Commencement and continuation of approach
NCC.POL.100	Operating limitations — all aircraft
NCC.POL.105	Mass and balance, loading
NCC.POL.110	Mass and balance data and documentation
NCC.POL.115	Performance — general
NCC.POL.120	Take-off mass limitations — aeroplanes
NCC.POL.125	Take-off — aeroplanes
NCC.POL.130	En-route — one engine inoperative — aeroplanes
NCC.POL.135	Landing — aeroplanes
NCC.IDE.A.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCC.IDE.A.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCC.IDE.A.110	Spare electrical fuses
NCC.IDE.A.115	Operating lights
NCC.IDE.A.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.A.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.A.130	Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR
NCC.IDE.A.135	Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)
NCC.IDE.A.140	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)
NCC.IDE.A.145	Airborne weather detecting equipment
NCC.IDE.A.150	Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night
NCC.IDE.A.155	Flight crew interphone system
NCC.IDE.A.160	Cockpit voice recorder
NCC.IDE.A.165	Flight data recorder
NCC.IDE.A.170	Data link recording
NCC.IDE.A.175	Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder
NCC.IDE.A.180	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCC.IDE.A.185	Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs
NCC.IDE.A.190	First-aid kit
NCC.IDE.A.195	Supplemental oxygen — pressurised aeroplanes
NCC.IDE.A.200	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised aeroplanes
NCC.IDE.A.205	Hand fire extinguishers
NCC.IDE.A.206	Crash axe and crowbar
NCC.IDE.A.210	Marking of break-in points
NCC.IDE.A.215	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCC.IDE.A.220	Flight over water
NCC.IDE.A.230	Survival equipment
NCC.IDE.A.240	Headset
NCC.IDE.A.245	Radio communication equipment
NCC.IDE.A.250	Navigation equipment
NCC.IDE.A.255	Transponder
NCC.IDE.A.260	Management of aeronautical databases
NCC.IDE.H.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCC.IDE.H.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCC.IDE.H.115	Operating lights
NCC.IDE.H.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.H.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.H.130	Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR
NCC.IDE.H.145	Airborne weather detecting equipment
NCC.IDE.H.150	Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night
NCC.IDE.H.155	Flight crew interphone system
NCC.IDE.H.160	Cockpit voice recorder
NCC.IDE.H.165	Flight data recorder
NCC.IDE.H.170	Data link recording
NCC.IDE.H.175	Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder
NCC.IDE.H.180	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCC.IDE.H.185	Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs
NCC.IDE.H.190	First-aid kit
NCC.IDE.H.200	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised helicopters
NCC.IDE.H.205	Hand fire extinguishers
NCC.IDE.H.210	Marking of break-in points
NCC.IDE.H.215	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCC.IDE.H.225	Life-jackets
NCC.IDE.H.226	Crew survival suits
NCC.IDE.H.227	Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights
NCC.IDE.H.230	Survival equipment
NCC.IDE.H.232	Helicopters certified for operating on water — miscellaneous equipment
NCC.IDE.H.235	All helicopters on flights over water — ditching
NCC.IDE.H.240	Headset
NCC.IDE.H.245	Radio communication equipment
NCC.IDE.H.250	Navigation equipment
NCC.IDE.H.255	Transponder
NCC.IDE.H.260	Management of aeronautical databases
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 8 omitted (30.10.2025) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(a)(i)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 8 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(a)(ii)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 8 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(a)(iii)
CHAPTER 9
Provision of Part-NCO	Subject matter
NCO.GEN.105 (except paragraph (a)(5))	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority
NCO.GEN.106	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority — balloons
NCO.OP.100	Use of aerodromes and operating sites
NCO.OP.110	Aerodrome operating minima — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.111	Aerodrome operating minima — 2D and 3D approach operations
NCO.OP.112	Aerodrome operating minima — circling operations with aeroplanes
NCO.OP.115	Departure and approach procedures — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.116	Performance-based navigation — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.125	Fuel, energy and oil supply - aeroplanes or helicopters
. . .	. . .
NCO.OP.127	Fuel and ballast supply and planning — balloons
NCO.OP.130	Passenger briefing
NCO.OP.135	Flight preparation
NCO.OP.140	Destination alternate aerodromes — aeroplanes
NCO.OP.141	Destination alternate aerodromes — helicopters
NCO.OP.142	Destination alternate aerodromes — instrument approach operations
NCO.OP.145	Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking
NCO.OP.150	Carriage of passengers
NCO.OP.155	Smoking on board — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.156	Smoking on board — sailplanes and balloons
NCO.OP.160	Meteorological conditions
NCO.OP.165	Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures
NCO.OP.170	Ice and other contaminants — flight procedures
NCO.OP.175	Take-off conditions — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.176	Take-off conditions — balloons
NCO.OP.180	Simulated situations in flight
NCO.OP.190	Use of supplemental oxygen
NCO.OP.200	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)
NCO.OP.205	Approach and landing conditions — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.210	Commencement and continuation of approach — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.215	Operational limitations — hot-air balloons
NCO.OP.220	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)
NCO.POL.100	Operating limitations — all aircraft
NCO.POL.105	Weighing
NCO.POL.110	Performance — general
NCO.IDE.A.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.A.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.A.110	Spare electrical fuses
NCO.IDE.A.115	Operating lights
NCO.IDE.A.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.A.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.A.130	Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)
NCO.IDE.A.135	Flight crew interphone system
NCO.IDE.A.140	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCO.IDE.A.145	First-aid kit
NCO.IDE.A.150	Supplemental oxygen — pressurised aeroplanes
NCO.IDE.A.155	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised aeroplanes
NCO.IDE.A.160	Hand fire extinguishers
NCO.IDE.A.165	Marking of break-in points
NCO.IDE.A.170	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCO.IDE.A.175	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.A.180	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.A.190	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.A.195	Navigation equipment
NCO.IDE.A.200	Transponder
NCO.IDE.A.205	Management of aeronautical databases
NCO.IDE.H.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.H.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.H.115	Operating lights
NCO.IDE.H.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.H.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.H.126	Additional equipment for single pilot operations under IFR
NCO.IDE.H.135	Flight crew interphone system
NCO.IDE.H.140	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCO.IDE.H.145	First-aid kit
NCO.IDE.H.155	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised helicopters
NCO.IDE.H.160	Hand fire extinguishers
NCO.IDE.H.165	Marking of break-in points
NCO.IDE.H.170	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCO.IDE.H.175	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.H.180	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.H.185	All helicopters on flights over water — ditching
NCO.IDE.H.190	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.H.195	Navigation equipment
NCO.IDE.H.200	Transponder
NCO.IDE.H.205	Management of aeronautical databases
NCO.IDE.S.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.S.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.S.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments
NCO.IDE.S.120	Cloud flying — flight and navigational instruments
NCO.IDE.S.125	Seats and restraint systems
NCO.IDE.S.130	Supplemental oxygen
NCO.IDE.S.135	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.S.140	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.S.145	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.S.150	Navigation equipment
NCO.IDE.S.155	Transponder
NCO.IDE.B.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.B.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.B.110	Operating lights
NCO.IDE.B.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.B.120	First-aid kit
NCO.IDE.B.121	Supplemental oxygen
NCO.IDE.B.125	Hand fire extinguishers
NCO.IDE.B.130	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.B.135	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.B.140	Miscellaneous equipment
NCO.IDE.B.145	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.B.150	Transponder
NCO.SPEC.105	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.110	Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority
NCO.SPEC.115	Crew responsibilities
NCO.SPEC.125	Safety briefing
NCO.SPEC.130	Minimum obstacle clearance altitude – IFR flights
. . .	. . .
. . .	. . .
NCO.SPEC155	Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS II)
NCO.SPEC.170	Performance and operating criteria – aeroplanes
NCO.SPEC.175	Performance and operating criteria – helicopters
NCO.SPEC.HESLO.100	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.HESLO.105	Specific HESLO equipment
NCO.SPEC.HEC.100	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.PAR.100	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.ABF.100	Checklist
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(b)(ii)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(b)(iii)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 omitted (30.10.2025) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(b)(i)(aa)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(b)(iv)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 54
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 omitted (30.10.2025) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(b)(i)(bb)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 omitted (30.10.2025) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(b)(i)(cc)
CHAPTER 10
Provision of Part-SPO		Subject matter
SPO.GEN.102		Touring motor gliders, powered sailplanes and mixed balloons
SPO.GEN.105		Crew responsibilities
SPO.GEN.107		Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority
SPO.GEN.108		Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority – balloons
SPO.GEN.119		Taxiing of aircraft
SPO.GEN.130		Portable electronic devices
SPO.GEN.145		Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use – operations with complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.OP.100		Use of aerodromes and operating sites
SPO.OP.110		Aerodrome operating minima – aeroplanes and helicopters
. . .		. . .
SPO.OP.125		Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes – IFR flights
SPO.OP.130		Fuel scheme - aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.131		Fuel scheme - fuel or energy planning policy and in-flight replanning policy - aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.132		Fuel and ballast supply and planning - balloons
SPO.OP.135		Safety briefing
SPO.OP.140		Flight preparation
SPO.OP.145		Take-off alternate aerodromes – complex motor-powered aeroplanes
SPO.OP.150		Destination alternate aerodromes – aeroplanes
SPO.OP.151		Destination alternate aerodromes – helicopters
SPO.OP.155		Refuelling with persons embarking, on board or disembarking
SPO.OP.160		Use of headset
SPO.OP.165		Smoking
SPO.OP.170		Meteorological conditions
SPO.OP.175		Ice and other contaminants – ground procedures
SPO.OP.176		Ice and other contaminants – flight procedures
SPO.OP.180		Take-off conditions – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.181		Take-off conditions – balloons
SPO.OP.195		Use of supplemental oxygen
SPO.OP.205		Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)
SPO.OP.210		Approach and landing conditions – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.215		Commencement and continuation of approach – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.230		Standard operating procedures
SPO.POL.100		Operating limitations – all aircraft
SPO.POL.105		Mass and balance
SPO.POL.110		Mass and balance system – commercial operations with aeroplanes and helicopters and non-commercial operations with complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.115		Mass and balance data and documentation – commercial operations with aeroplanes and helicopters and non-commercial operations with complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.120		Performance – general
SPO.POL.125		Take-off mass limitations – complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.130		Take-off – complex motor-powered aeroplanes
SPO.POL.135		En route – one engine inoperative – complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.140		Landing – complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.145		Performance and operating criteria – aeroplanes
SPO.POL.146		Performance and operating criteria – helicopters
SPO.IDE.A.100	Instruments and equipment — general	
SPO.IDE.A.105	Minimum equipment for flight	
SPO.IDE.A.110	Spare electrical fuses	
SPO.IDE.A.115	Operating lights	
SPO.IDE.A.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment	
SPO.IDE.A.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment	
SPO.IDE.A.126	Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR	
SPO.IDE.A.130	Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)	
SPO.IDE.A.131	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)	
SPO.IDE.A.132	Airborne weather detecting equipment – complex motor-powered aeroplanes	
SPO.IDE.A.133	Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night - complex motor-powered aeroplanes	
SPO.IDE.A.140	Cockpit voice recorder	
SPO.IDE.A.145	Flight data recorder	
SPO.IDE.A.150	Data link recording	
SPO.IDE.A.155	Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder	
SPO.IDE.A.160	Seats, seat safety belts and restraint systems	
SPO.IDE.A.165	First-aid kit	
SPO.IDE.A.170	Supplemental oxygen – pressurised aeroplanes	
SPO.IDE.A.175	Supplemental oxygen – non-pressurised aeroplanes	
SPO.IDE.A.180	Hand fire extinguishers	
SPO.IDE.A.181	Crash axe and crowbar	
SPO.IDE.A.185	Marking of break-in points	
SPO.IDE.A.190	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)	
SPO.IDE.A.195	Flight over water	
SPO.IDE.A.200	Survival equipment	
SPO.IDE.A.205	Individual protective equipment	
SPO.IDE.H.197	Life-jackets – complex motor-powered helicopters	
SPO.IDE.H.198	Survival suits – complex motor-powered helicopters	
SPO.IDE.H.199	Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights – complex motor-powered helicopters	
SPO.IDE.H.200	Survival equipment	
SPO.IDE.H.201	Additional requirements for helicopters conducting offshore operations in a hostile sea area – complex motor-powered helicopters	
SPO.IDE.H.202	Helicopters certified for operating on water – miscellaneous equipment	
SPO.IDE.H.203	All helicopters on flights over water - ditching	
SPO.IDE.H.205	Individual protective equipment	
SPO.IDE.H.210	Headset	
SPO.IDE.H.215	Radio communication equipment	
SPO.IDE.H.220	Navigation equipment	
SPO.IDE.H.225	Transponder	
SPO.IDE.S.100	Instruments and equipment — general	
SPO.IDE.S.105	Minimum equipment for flight	
SPO.IDE.S.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments	
SPO.IDE.S.120	Cloud flying — flight and navigational instruments	
SPO.IDE.S.125	Seats and restraint systems	
SPO.IDE.S.130	Supplemental oxygen	
SPO.IDE.S.135	Flight over water	
SPO.IDE.S.140	Survival equipment	
SPO.IDE.S.145	Radio communication equipment	
SPO.IDE.S.150	Navigation equipment	
SPO.IDE.S.155	Transponder	
SPO.IDE.B.100	Instruments and equipment — general	
SPO.IDE.B.105	Minimum equipment for flight	
SPO.IDE.B.110	Operating lights	
SPO.IDE.B.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment	
SPO.IDE.B.120	First-aid kit	
SPO.IDE.B.121	Supplemental oxygen	
SPO.IDE.B.125	Hand fire extinguishers	
SPO.IDE.B.130	Flight over water	
SPO.IDE.B.135	Survival equipment	
SPO.IDE.B.140	Miscellaneous equipment	
SPO.IDE.B.145	Radio communication equipment	
NCO.IDE.B.150	Transponder	
Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 10 added (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 55
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 10 omitted (30.10.2025) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(c)(i)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 10 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(c)(ii)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 10 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(c)(iii)
CHAPTER 11
Provision of Part-ORO	Subject matter
ORO.GEN.110(a) to (i) inclusive	Operator responsibilities
ORO.GEN.120(b) to (d) inclusive	Means of compliance
ORO.GEN.130	Changes related to an AOC holder
ORO.GEN.140	Access
ORO.GEN.150(c)	Findings
ORO.GEN.155	Immediate reaction to a safety problem
ORO.GEN.200	Management system
ORO.GEN.205	Contracted activities
ORO.GEN.210	Personnel requirements
ORO.GEN.220	Record-keeping
ORO.AOC.110(b) and (f)	Leasing agreement
ORO.AOC.115	Code-share agreements
ORO.AOC.125(a)	Non-commercial operations of aircraft listed in the operations specifications by the holder of an AOC
ORO.AOC.130	Flight data monitoring–aeroplanes
ORO.AOC.135	Personnel requirements
ORO.AOC.140	Facility requirements
ORO.AOC.150	Documentation requirements
ORO.SPO.100	Common requirements for commercial specialised operators
ORO.MLR.100 (other than (c) and (h))	Operations manual – general
ORO.MLR.105	Minimum equipment list
ORO.FC.100 (other than (d))	Composition of flight crew
ORO.FC.105 (other than ( e ))	Designation as pilot-in-command/commander
ORO.FC.110	Flight engineer
ORO.FC.115	Crew resource management (CRM) training
ORO.FC.120	Operator conversion training
ORO.FC.125	Differences training and familiarisation training
ORO.FC.130	Recurrent training and checking
ORO.FC.135	Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat
ORO.FC.140	Operation on more than one type or variant
ORO.FC.145	Provision of training
ORO.FC.200	Composition of flight crew
ORO.FC.A.201	In-flight relief of flight crew members
ORO.FC.202	Single-pilot operations under IFR or at night
ORO.FC.205	Command course
ORO.FC.215	Initial operator’s crew resource management (CRM) training
ORO.FC.220	Operator conversion training and checking
ORO.FC.230	Recurrent training and checking
ORO.FC.235	Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat - aeroplanes
ORO.FC.236	Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat - helicopters
ORO.FC.240 ...	Operation on more than one type or variant
ORO.FC.A.245 (other than (a) and (e))	Alternative training and qualification programme
ORO.FC.A.250(a)	Commanders holding a CPL(A)
ORO.FC.H.250	Commanders holding a CPL(H)
ORO.FC.330	Recurrent training and checking – operator proficiency check
ORO.CC.100	Number and composition of cabin crew
ORO.CC.110	Conditions for assignment to duties
ORO.CC.115	Conduct of training courses and associated checking
ORO.CC.120	Initial training course
ORO.CC.125	Aircraft type specific training and operator conversion training
ORO.CC.130	Differences training
ORO.CC.135	Familiarisation
ORO.CC.140	Recurrent training
ORO.CC.145	Refresher training
ORO.CC.200	Senior cabin crew member
ORO.CC.205	Reduction of the number of cabin crew during ground operations and in unforeseen circumstances
ORO.CC.210	Additional conditions for assignment to duties
ORO.CC.215	Training and checking programs and related documentation
ORO.CC.250	Operation on more than one aircraft type or variant
ORO.CC.255	Single cabin crew member operations
ORO.TC.105	Conditions for assignment to duties
ORO.TC.110	Training and checking
ORO.TC.115	Initial training
ORO.TC.120	Operator conversion training
ORO.TC.125	Differences training
ORO.TC.130	Familiarisation flights
ORO.TC.135	Recurrent training
ORO.TC.140	Refresher training
ORO.FTL.115	Crew member responsibilities
ORO.FTL.120	Fatigue risk management (FRM)
ORO.FTL.125	Flight time specification schemes
ORO.FTL.200	Home base
ORO.FTL.205	Flight duty period (FDP)
ORO.FTL.220	Split duty
ORO.FTL.225(a), (e) and (f)	Standby and duties at the airport
ORO.FTL.230	Reserve
ORO.FTL.235	Rest periods
ORO.FTL.250	Fatigue management training
Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 11 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 8
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 11 substituted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(d)(i)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 11 inserted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(d)(ii)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 11 inserted (30.10.2025) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(d)(iii)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 11 omitted (30.10.2025) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1290), regs. 1(3), 12(3)(d)(iv)

PART 3 Provisions Referred to in Article 265(7)
CHAPTER 1
Article of Order	Subject matter
33(1)	Aircraft not to fly without a certificate of airworthiness
33(7)	Aircraft to comply with flight manual
37(2)	Non-military State aircraft to have a national certificate of airworthiness or a Part-21 certificate of airworthiness
37(3)	Requirements for non-military State aircraft with Part-21 certificate of airworthiness
47(3)	Certificate of release to service not to be issued if any known danger to flight safety
97(2)	Requirement to comply with regulations for the carriage of dangerous goods
98(2)	Requirements for carriage of munitions of war
98(3)	Prohibition on carriage of sporting weapon or munition of war where passengers have access
99	Prohibition on carrying on board sporting weapons or munitions of war
101(1)	Aircraft not to fly for public transport without AOC
. . .	. . .
103	Aircraft not to fly on a commercial air transport operation except under a Part-CAT AOC
104(1)	Offering commercial air transport and public transport flights without AOC
115A	Operator responsibilities in relation to communications
134(4)	Aircraft not to fly in the service of a police authority except under a Police Air Operator's Certificate, a national Air Operator's Certificate or a Part-CAT air operator certificate
136	Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
137	Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of non-Part-21 aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
148	Requirement for appropriate licence to act member of flight crew of aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
149(1)	Requirement for appropriate licence to act as flight crew member of Part-21 registered aircraft elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
162	Requirement for a Part MED medical certificate for a Part-FCL licence
175(1)	Operator's obligation to regulate flight times of crew
175(2)	Operator's obligation not permit flight by crew in dangerous state of fatigue
176(1)	Crew's obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
. . .	. . .
179	Fatigue of crew – ... Part-CAT operator's responsibilities
180(1)	Requirement for air traffic control approval
187(1)	Instrument flight procedures to be approved before notification
188(2)	Requirement to hold student air traffic controller licence or air traffic controller licence
. . .	. . .
. . .	. . .
220(6)	Aviation fuel not to be dispensed if not fit for use
220(7)	Compliance with direction not to dispense aviation fuel
. . .	. . .
241	Endangering safety of any person or property
242	Drunkenness in aircraft
245(c)	Intentional interference
247	Obligations of operator and pilot in command when flying over foreign country
248(1)	Compliance with operational directives
250(1)	Restriction on carriage, where valuable consideration is given or promised, in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
250(7)	Restriction on holding self out as a person offering carriage by air
252	Restriction on aerial photography, aerial survey and commercial operation in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
256 (except (2) and (5))	Prohibitions in relation to documents and records
257(3)	Flight in contravention of CAA's direction not to fly
258	Grounded aircraft not to fly
259(3)	Flight in contravention of Secretary of State's direction not to fly
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(i)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(i)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(a)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 10
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(b)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(cc) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 revoked (7.8.2019) by The Air Navigation (Cosmic Radiation Protection of Air Crew and Space Crew and Consequential Amendments) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/1115), arts. 1, 28(1)(c) (with arts. 3, 28(3))
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(dd) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(c)
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(d)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(e)
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Operation of Air Services (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1392), regs. 1(2), 6(5); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 2
Provision of Part 21, Part M, Part 145, Part 66 or Part 147	Subject matter
M.A.201(a) and (b)	Responsibilities of owner or lessee
M.A.201(d)	Responsibilities of the pilot in command or operator
M.A.201(e) and (f)	Responsibilities of continuing airworthiness management organisation
M.A.201(h)	Obligations of commercial air transport operator
M.A.201(i)	Obligations of certificated operator
M.A.403	Aircraft defects to be rectified
M.A.902(b)	Aircraft not to fly if airworthiness review certificate invalid
CHAPTER 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 4
Provision of ... Air Traffic Controller Licensing Regulation	Subject matter
Article 2(1)	Compliance with requirements and procedures
ATCO.A.015(b)	Exercise of the privileges of licences and provisional inability
ATCO.MED.A.020	Decrease in medical fitness
Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 4 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 57
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 4 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 5
Provision of ... Air Operations Regulation	Subject matter
CAT.GEN.MPA.155	Prohibition of carriage of weapons or munitions of war
CAT.GEN.MPA.100(c)	Crew member's obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
CAT.GEN.MPA.200	Operator to comply with Technical Instructions
SPA.DG.100	Operator to hold approval to transport dangerous goods
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(d) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 6
Provision of ... Aerodromes Regulation	Subject matter
ADR.OR.C 030	Failure to report any accident, serious incident or occurrence or to report in the form and manner required or within the required time limit
Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 6 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(e) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
CHAPTER 7
Provision of SERA	Subject matter
2020	Problematic use of psychoactive substance
3101	Negligent or reckless operation of aircraft
5005 (j)	VFR flight within or into designated areas or along designated routes
8020	Adherence to flight plan
8025	Position Reports
8035	Communications
11015(b)	Pilot-in-command of an aircraft to comply with instructions given by intercepting aircraft
Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 7 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 58
CHAPTER 8
Provision of Occurrence Reporting Regulation	Subject matter
4	Requirement to report occurrences
CHAPTER 9
Provision of Part-NCC	Subject matter
NCC.GEN.150	Transport of dangerous goods
CHAPTER 10
Provision of Part-NCO	Subject matter
NCO.GEN.105(a)(5)	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority
NCO.GEN.140	Transport of dangerous goods
NCO.GEN.145	Immediate reaction to a safety problem
NCO.OP.185	In-flight fuel management
NCO.SPEC.160	Release of dangerous goods
NCO.SPEC.165	Carriage and use of weapons
NCO.SPEC.HESLO.110	Transportation of dangerous goods
Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 10 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 59
CHAPTER 11
Provision of Part-SPO	Subject matter
SPO.GEN.150	Transport of dangerous goods
SPO.GEN.155	Release of dangerous goods
SPO.GEN.160	Carriage and use of weapons
SPO.SPEC.HESLO.110	Transportation of dangerous goods
Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 11 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 60
CHAPTER 12
Provision of Part-ORO	Subject matter
ORO.GEN.110(j) to (k) inclusive	Operator responsibilities
ORO.GEN.125	Terms of approval and privileges of an AOC holder
ORO.GEN.160	Occurrence reporting
ORO.AOC.100(a)	Application for an air operator certificate
ORO.AOC.120(a) and (b)	Approvals to provide cabin crew training and to issue cabin crew attestations
ORO.DEC.100	Declaration
ORO.SPO.110(a)	Authorisation of high risk commercial specialised operations
ORO.SPO.115	Changes
ORO.SPO.120	Continued validity
ORO.SEC.100	Flight crew compartment security – aeroplanes
ORO.SEC.105	Flight crew compartment security – helicopters
ORO.FTL.110	Operator responsibilities
ORO.FTL.210	Flight times and duty periods
Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 12 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 9

PART 4 Provisions Referred to in Article 265(8)
Article of Order	Subject matter
240	Endangering safety of an aircraft

SCHEDULE 14 REVOCATIONS AND SAVINGS, CONSEQUENTIAL AMENDMENTS AND TRANSITIONAL ARRANGEMENTS
Article 274

PART 1 Revocations and savings
1. The instruments specified in column 1 of the table, with the reference in the corresponding entry in column 2 of the table, are revoked to the extent specified in the corresponding entry in column 3 of that table.
Column 1Instrument Title	Column 2Reference	Column 3Extent of revocation
The Air Navigation Order 2009	S.I. 2009/3015	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2010	S.I. 2010/770	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2011	S.I. 2011/2432	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2012	S.I. 2012/1751	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2013	S.I. 2013/3169	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/508	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/1888	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 3) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/2920	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 4) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/3302	Whole instrument
The International Interests in Aircraft Equipment (Cape Town Convention) Regulations 2015	S.I. 2015/912	Paragraph 4 of Schedule 5
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2015	S.I. 2015/1768	Whole instrument

PART 2 Consequential amendments

CHAPTER 1 Primary legislation

Amendment of the Police Act 1997
2. In the Police Act 1997 —
(a) in section 113A as it applies to Northern Ireland , for subsection (6D)(fff), substitute—

“(fff) an offence under article 240 or 241 of the Air Navigation Order 2016;”;

Subsection (6D) was inserted in respect of Northern Ireland by S.R. (NI) 2014 No 100.
(b) for paragraph 23 of Schedule 8A , substitute—

“23. An offence under article 265 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 in respect of a contravention of article 240 of that Order (endangering safety of aircraft).”.

Schedule 8A was inserted by S.S.I. 2015/423.
1997 c.50.

CHAPTER 2 Secondary legislation

SECTION 1 United Kingdom Statutory Instruments

Amendment of the Civil Aviation (Working Time) Regulations 2004
3. In the Civil Aviation (Working Time) Regulations 2004 —
(a) in regulation 3—
(i) in the definition of “commercial air transport flight”, for “article 255(1) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;
(ii) in the definition of “public transport”, for “article 260(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 6(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;
(iii) in the definition of “scheme”, for “article 145(1)(b) or 149(a) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 175(1)(b) or 179(2)(a) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;
(b) in regulation 10(2), for “a scheme referred to in article 145(1) or 149 of the Air Navigation Order 2009” (twice), substitute “ a scheme referred to in article 175(1) or 179 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2004/756.

Amendment of the Plant Protection Products (Sustainable Use) Regulations 2012
4. In paragraph 7(e) of Schedule 2 to the Plant Protection Products (Sustainable Use) Regulations 2012 , for “article 131(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 91(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2012/1657.

Amendment of the Kentish Flats Extension Order 2013
5. In the Kentish Flats Extension Order 2013 —
(a) in paragraph 5(e) of Part 3 to Schedule 1; and
(b) in paragraph 2(e) of Part 2 to Schedule 2,
for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2013/343.

Amendment of the Wireless Telegraphy (Limitation of Number of Licences) Order 2014
6. In paragraphs 7, 9, 14, 18 and 23 of Part 2 of Schedule 6 to the Wireless Telegraphy (Limitation of Number of Licences) Order 2014 , for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2014/774.

Amendment of the Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014
7. In paragraph 9(4)(a) of Schedule 1 to the Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014 , for “article 6 (aircraft to be registered) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 27 (application for the registration of an aircraft) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2014/2936.

Amendment of the Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) (England) Order 2015
8. In the Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) (England) Order 2015 —
(a) in the definition of “aerodrome” in article 2(1)—
(i) for “article 255 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 (interpretation)”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”; and
(ii) for “article 255 of that Order”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to that Order ”;
(b) in paragraph U of Part 19 of Schedule 2, for “article 255 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2015/596.

Amendment of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015
9. In the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015 —
(a) in rule 1(3) in Schedule 1, for “article 258 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 5 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”; and
(b) in rule 2 in Schedule 1, for “articles 160(3) and 252(1) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ articles 249(3) and 22(1) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2015/840.

Amendment of the Air Navigation (Isle of Man) Order 2015
10. In the Air Navigation (Isle of Man) Order 2015 —
(a) in article 68(1), for “article 132 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 97 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;
(b) in article 91(1), for “article 160 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 249 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”; and
(c) in article 167(1), in the definition of “applied regulations”, for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.I. 2015/870.

SECTION 2 Scottish Statutory Instruments

Amendment of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exclusions and Exceptions) (Scotland) Order 2013
11. For paragraph 23 of Schedule A1 to the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exclusions and Exceptions) (Scotland) Order 2013 , substitute—

“23. An offence under article 265 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 in respect of a contravention of article 240 of that Order (endangering safety of aircraft).”.

S.S.I. 2013/50.

SECTION 3 Northern Ireland Statutory Rules

Amendment of Rehabilitation of Offenders (Exceptions) Order (Northern Ireland) 1979
12. In article 1A(4)(fff) of the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Exceptions) Order (Northern Ireland) 1979 , for “Article 137 or 138 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Article 240 or 241 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.R. 1979/195.

Amendment of the Planning (General Permitted Development) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015
13. In the definition of “airbase” in the “Interpretation Part 29” section of Part 29 of the Schedule to the Planning (General Permitted Development) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015 , for “Article 255 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.R. 2015/70.

Amendment of the Planning (General Development Procedure) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015
14. In article 2(1) of the Planning (General Development Procedure) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015 , in the definition of “licensed aerodrome”, for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.
S.R. 2015/72.

PART 3 Transitional arrangements

Log Books
15. In respect of any log book kept under article 34 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 immediately before the commencement of this Order—
(a) such a log book may continue to be used to comply with the requirements of this Order;
(b) entries made in such a log book before the commencement of this Order must be retained as though they were entries made in accordance with the requirements of this Order; and
(c) entries in such a log book which were required to be made by the Air Navigation Order 2009 immediately before the commencement of this Order and which have not been so made continue to be required to be made.

Equipment of non-Part-21 aircraft
16. A non-Part-21 aircraft which, immediately before the commencement of this Order, was fitted with equipment in conformity with article 37 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 is deemed to meet the requirements of article 77 of this Order.
Word in Sch. 14 para. 16 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 86 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Instructor ratings
17. An instructor rating held pursuant to the Air Navigation Order 2009 immediately before the commencement of this Order—
(a) is, for the purposes of this Order, deemed to be the equivalent instructor certificate issued under this Order;
(b) remains valid until—
(i) that rating would have ceased to become valid under the Air Navigation Order 2009, had that Order not been revoked; or
(ii) an equivalent instructor certificate issued under this Order would cease to be valid,
whichever is the sooner; and
(c) on the first occasion where revalidation or renewal is required in accordance with this Order, is to become an instructor certificate issued under this Order.

Aircraft markings
18. An aircraft which, immediately before the commencement of this Order, bore markings in conformity with article 119 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 is deemed to meet the requirements of paragraph 7 of Schedule 5 or paragraph 6 of Part 1 of Schedule 6 of this Order.

Certificates of experience and test
19. For the purposes of article 154(2), a certificate of experience or certificate of test obtained under the Air Navigation Order 2009 is to be treated as a certificate of revalidation until such time as—
(a) the holder next applies to the CAA for the renewal or variation of their licence; or
(b) the CAA requires a variation of the holder's licence,
whichever is the earlier.

Medical declarations
20. (1) For the purposes of article 163, a medical declaration which immediately before the commencement of this Order was valid under article 73A of the Air Navigation Order 2009—
(a) is to be treated as a declaration made in accordance with, and satisfying the requirements of, paragraph (3) of article 163; and
(b) subject to paragraph (4) of article 163, continues to be valid until the expiry of the relevant period mentioned in the table in paragraph (4) of article 73A of the Air Navigation Order 2009.
(2) In the application of article 163 to a medical declaration mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)—
(a) the reference in paragraph (4)(b) of that article to “paragraph (3)” is to be treated as though it read “article 73A of the Air Navigation Order 2009, had that article remained in force”; and
(b) the reference in paragraph (4)(c)(i) of that article to “paragraph (3)(a)(i)” is to be treated as though it read “article 73A(2)(a) of the Air Navigation Order 2009, had that article remained in force”.

(This note is not part of the Order)
This Order consolidates with amendments the provisions of the Air Navigation Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/3015) and takes account of the requirement to apply the provisions of certain of the Annexes to Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 (O.J. No. L 296, 25.10.2012, p.1., and referred to in this Order as the “EASA Air Operations Regulation”) to different categories of aircraft following the expiry of the derogation period permitted under paragraph 3 of Article 10 of that Regulation.
Part 1 deals with interpretation, and introduces Schedule 1 containing definitions used throughout the Order.
Part 2 sets out the applicability of the Order, including providing for extra-territorial effect in certain situations.
Part 3 contains provisions dealing with registration and marking of aircraft.
Part 4 deals with airworthiness of aircraft, both initially and on a continuing basis.
Part 5 sets out provisions dealing with the operation of aircraft. This imposes specific obligations on the pilot in command of an aircraft, and sets out requirements for aircraft equipment and crew, as well as restrictions on certain types of aerial activity. There are additional requirements for public transport operations.
Part 6 deals with arrangements for aircrew, including provisions requiring aircrew to be licensed, and how such licences are granted and maintained. Article 178 also implements article 42 of Council Directive 96/29/Euratom of 13 May 1996, which lays down basic safety standards for the protection of the health of workers and the general public against the dangers arising from ionising radiation (O.J. No. L 159, 29.6.96, p.1). Article 178 therefore requires an undertaking established in the United Kingdom which operates aircraft to take appropriate measures to assess the in-flight exposure to cosmic radiation of air crew who are liable to be subject to cosmic radiation in excess of 1 milliSievert per year, to take into account the assessed exposure when organising work schedules and to inform the workers concerned of the health risks their work involves. In accordance with article 10 of that Directive, additional provision is made for air crew who are pregnant so that the dose to the foetus will be as low as reasonably achievable and unlikely to exceed 1 milliSievert during the remainder of the pregnancy.
Part 7 deals with arrangements for air traffic services, including the licensing of air traffic controllers and flight information service officers.
Part 8 sets requirements for aerodromes and lighting, including a requirement to light objects, such as wind turbine generators, which may prove an obstacle to aircraft. Lights which dazzle or distract pilots, or which are otherwise liable to endanger aircraft, are prohibited.
Part 9 specifies which documents and records are required to be maintained and produced. Article 230 also requires an undertaking to keep a record of the assessed exposure of air crew to cosmic radiation for the purposes of Council Directive 96/29/Euratom, to produce that record on request to the Civil Aviation Authority and to supply a copy on request to the air crew concerned.
Part 10 sets out prohibited behaviour in connection with aircraft, including in relation to drunkenness, smoking and acting in a disruptive manner. It also provides for Operational Directives and Rules of the Air to be promulgated.
Part 11 deals with revocations and savings, consequential amendments and transitional arrangements, and introduces Schedule 14.
Part 12 consists of a review provision in article 275, which requires the Secretary of State to review the operation and effect of this Order and publish a report within five years after it comes into force and within every five years after that. Following a review it will fall to the Secretary of State to consider whether this Order should remain as it is, or be revoked or be amended. A further instrument would be needed to revoke the Order or to amend it.
A full impact assessment of the effect that this instrument will have on the costs of business and the voluntary sector is available from the Department for Transport, Great Minster House, 33 Horseferry Road, London SW1P 4DR and published with the Explanatory Memorandum alongside the instrument at www.legislation.gov.uk
(This table is not part of the Order)
The following Table shows, in relation to each provision of the Air Navigation Order 2009, as amended, the provision of this Order in which it is reproduced (wholly or in part), or whether it has been omitted.
Provision of the Air Navigation Order 2009, as amended	Corresponding provision of this Order, or whether provision omitted
1	1
2	274
3	24
4	25
5	26
6	27
7	28
8	29
8A	30
9	31
10	32
11	102
11A	103
12	101
13	134
14	104
15	248
16	33
17	37
18	38
19	39
20	34
21	40
22	41
23 (except (2))	42
23(2)	86
24	omitted
25	omitted
26	omitted
27	227
28	44
29 (except (2) and (4))	omitted
29(2)	46
29(4)	45
30	47
31	48
32	35
33	36
34	226
35	43
36	262
36A	49
36B	50
36C	51
36D	52
36E	53
36F	54
36G	55
36H	56
36I	57
36J	58
36K	59
36L	60
36M	61
36N	62
36O	63
37	77
38 (except (3) and (4))	omitted
38(3) and (4)	119
39	77
40	omitted
41	78
42	66
43	67
44	108
45	109
46	110
47	111
48	112
49	omitted
50	136
50A	137
50B	138
51	139
52	140
53	141
54	omitted
55	142
56	143
57	144
58	145
59	146
60	147
61	148
61A	149
62	150
63	151
64	152
65	153
66	154
67	155
68	156
69	157
70	158
71	159
72	160
72A	161
72B	162
73	163
73A	omitted
73B	164
73C	165
74	166
75	omitted
76	167
77	168
78	169
79	228
80	170
81	171
82	172
82A	173
83	116
84	135
85	117
86	69 and 75
87	68
88	73
89	105
90	106
91	107
92	74
93	70
94	113
95	114
96	115
97	133
98	122
99	123
100	124
101	125
102	126
103	127
104	128
105	129
106	130
107	131
108	132
109	76 and 75
110	72
111	118
112	79
113	80
114	80
115	119
116	omitted
117	120
118	121
119	omitted
120	247
121	81
122	82
123	83
124	84
125	85
126	87
127	omitted
128	88
129	89
130	90
131	91
132	97
133	98
134	99
135	100
136	omitted
137	240
138	241
139	242
140	243
141	244
142	245
143	246
144	174
145	175
146	176
147	177
148	178
149	179
150	229
151	230
152	231
153	232
154	233
155	234
156	235
157	236
158	237
159	238
160	249
161	239
162	86
163 (except (8) and (9))	92
163(8) and (9)	93
164	92
165	92
166	94
167	95
168	96
169	180
170	181
171	182
172	183
173	184
174	185
175	186
176	187
177	188
185	189
185A	190
193	191
194	192
195	193
196	194
197	195
198	196
199	197
201	198
202	199
203	200
204	201
204A	202
204B	203
204C	204
205	205
206	206
207	207
208	208
208A	209
209	210
210	211
211	212
211A	213
212	214
213	215
214	216
214A	217
215	218
216	219
217	220
218	221
219	222
220	223
221	224
222	225
223	250
224	251
225	252
226	omitted
227	omitted
228	253
229	254
230	255
231	256
232	257
232A	258
236	259
237	260
238	261
239	263
240	264
241	265
242	266
243	267
244	268
245	269
246	270
246A	271
246B	272
246C	273
247	17
248	18
249	19
250	20
251	21
252	22
253	23
254	274
255	2 and Schedule 1
256	3
257	4
258	5
259	7
260	6
261	8
262	omitted
263	9
264	10
265	11
266	12
267	13
268	omitted
269	omitted
270	14
Schedule 1	Schedule 14
Schedule 2	Schedule 3
Schedule 3	Schedule 4
Schedule 4	Schedule 6
Schedule 5	Schedule 6
Schedule 6	Schedule 7
Schedule 7	Schedule 8
Schedule 8	Schedule 9
Schedule 9	Schedule 10
Schedule 11	Schedule 11
Schedule 12	Schedule 12
Schedule 13	Schedule 13
Schedule 14	Schedule 2

Art. 250 restricted (31.12.2020) by The Syria (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/792), regs. 1(3), 52(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Art. 255 restricted (31.12.2020) by The Syria (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/792), regs. 1(3), 52(1)(a); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Art. 255(4) excluded (31.12.2020) by The Syria (Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/792), regs. 1(3), 52(1)(b); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
Art. 255(4) excluded (8.3.2022 at 5.00 p.m.) by S.I. 2019/855, reg. 57L(1)(b) (as inserted by The Russia (Sanctions) (EU Exit) (Amendment) (No. 6) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/241), regs. 1(2), 9)
Art. 265G: power to amend conferred (29.4.2021 for specified purposes, 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force) by Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021 (c. 12), s. 21(1)(a), Sch. 10 para. 2(4)(5); S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)