Part III Authorisation and Exemption

Authorisation

I1C1331 Authorised persons.

1

The following persons are authorised for the purposes of this Act—

a

a person who has a F15Part 4A permission to carry on one or more regulated activities;

b

an EEA firm qualifying for authorisation under Schedule 3;

c

a Treaty firm qualifying for authorisation under Schedule 4;

d

a person who is otherwise authorised by a provision of, or made under, this Act.

2

In this Act “authorised person” means a person who is authorised for the purposes of this Act.

32 Partnerships and unincorporated associations.

1

If a firm is authorised—

a

it is authorised to carry on the regulated activities concerned in the name of the firm; and

b

its authorisation is not affected by any change in its membership.

2

If an authorised firm is dissolved, its authorisation continues to have effect in relation to any F1individual or firm which succeeds to the business of the dissolved firm.

F23

For the purposes of this section, an individual or firm is to be regarded as succeeding to the business of a dissolved firm only if succession is to the whole or substantially the whole of the business of the former firm.

4

Firm” means—

a

a partnership; or

b

an unincorporated association of persons.

5

“Partnership” does not include a partnership which is constituted under the law of any place outside the United Kingdom and is a body corporate.

Ending of authorisation

33 Withdrawal of authorisation F14....

1

This section applies if—

a

an authorised person’s F17Part 4A permission is cancelled; and

b

as a result, there is no regulated activity for which he has permission.

2

The F18appropriate regulator must give a direction withdrawing that person’s status as an authorised person.

F162A

In subsection (2) “the appropriate regulator” means—

a

in the case of a PRA-authorised person, the PRA, and

b

in any other case, the FCA.

34EEA firms.

1

An EEA firm ceases to qualify for authorisation under Part II of Schedule 3 if it ceases to be an EEA firm as a result of—

a

having its EEA authorisation withdrawn; or

b

ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required.

C12

At the request of an EEA firm, F8the appropriate regulator may give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Part II of Schedule 3.

F92A

In subsection (2) “the appropriate regulator” means—

a

in the case of a PRA-authorised person, the PRA, and

b

in any other case, the FCA.

3

If an EEA firm has a F10Part 4A permission, it does not cease to be an authorised person merely because it ceases to qualify for authorisation under Part II of Schedule 3.

35 Treaty firms.

1

A Treaty firm ceases to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 if its home State authorisation is withdrawn.

2

At the request of a Treaty firm, F11the appropriate regulator may give a direction cancelling its Schedule 4 authorisation.

F122A

In subsection (2) “the appropriate regulator” means—

a

in the case of a PRA-authorised person, the PRA, and

b

in any other case, the FCA.

3

If a Treaty firm has a F13Part 4A permission, it does not cease to be an authorised person merely because it ceases to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4.

36 Persons authorised as a result of paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5.

1

At the request of a person authorised as a result of paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5, the F19FCA may give a direction cancelling his authorisation as such a person.

2

If a person authorised as a result of paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 has a F20Part 4A permission, he does not cease to be an authorised person merely because he ceases to be a person so authorised.

Exercise of EEA rights by UK firms

I237 Exercise of EEA rights by UK firms.

Part III of Schedule 3 makes provision in relation to the exercise outside the United Kingdom of EEA rights by UK firms.

Exemption

38 Exemption orders.

1

The Treasury may by order (“an exemption order”) provide for—

a

specified persons, or

b

persons falling within a specified class,

to be exempt from the general prohibition.

C2C3C4C5C6C7C14C152

But a person cannot be an exempt person as a result of an exemption order if he has a F21Part 4A permission.

3

An exemption order may provide for an exemption to have effect—

a

in respect of all regulated activities;

b

in respect of one or more specified regulated activities;

c

only in specified circumstances;

d

only in relation to specified functions;

e

subject to conditions.

4

Specified” means specified by the exemption order.

I3C1639 Exemption of appointed representatives.

1

If a person (other than an authorised person)—

a

is a party to a contract with an authorised person (“his principal”) which—

i

permits or requires him to carry on business of a prescribed description, and

ii

complies with such requirements as may be prescribed, and

b

is someone for whose activities in carrying on the whole or part of that business his principal has accepted responsibility in writing,

he is exempt from the general prohibition in relation to any regulated activity comprised in the carrying on of that business for which his principal has accepted responsibility.

F31A

But a person is not exempt as a result of subsection (1)—

a

if his principal is an investment firm or a credit institution, and

b

so far as the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility is investment services business,

unless he is entered on the applicable register.

1B

The “applicable register” is—

a

in the case of a person established in an EEA State (other than the United Kingdom) which permits investment firms authorised by the competent authority of that State to appoint tied agents, the register of tied agents maintained in that State pursuant to Article 23 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

b

in the case of a person established in an EEA State which does not permit investment firms authorised as mentioned in paragraph (a) to appoint tied agents—

i

if his principal has his relevant office in the United Kingdom, the record maintained by the F6FCA by virtue of section 347(1)(ha), and

ii

if his principal is established in an EEA State (other than the United Kingdom) which permits investment firms authorised by the competent authority of the State to appoint tied agents, the register of tied agents maintained by that State pursuant to Article 23 of the markets in financial instruments directive; and

c

in any other case, the record maintained by the F6FCA by virtue of section 347(1)(ha).

F221C

Subsection (1D) applies where an authorised person (“A”)—

a

has permission under Part 4A, or permission resulting from any other provision of this Act, only in relation to one or more qualifying activities,

b

is a party to a contract with another authorised person (A's “principal”) which—

i

permits or requires A to carry on business of a prescribed description (“the relevant business”), and

ii

complies with such requirements as may be prescribed, and

c

is someone for whose activities in carrying on the whole or part of the relevant business A's principal has accepted responsibility in writing.

1D

Sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) do not apply in relation to the carrying on by A of a relevant additional activity.

1E

In subsections (1C) and (1D)—

a

qualifying activity” means a regulated activity which is of a prescribed kind and relates—

i

to rights under a contract of the kind mentioned in paragraph 23 of Schedule 2, other than one under which the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured on land, or

ii

to rights under a contract of the kind mentioned in paragraph 23B of that Schedule;

b

relevant additional activity” means a regulated activity which—

i

is not one to which A's permission relates, and

ii

is comprised in the carrying on of the business for which A's principal has accepted responsibility.

C8C9C10C11C12F232

In this Act “appointed representative” means—

a

a person who is exempt as a result of subsection (1), or

b

a person carrying on a regulated activity in circumstances where, as a result of subsection (1D), sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) do not apply.

3

The principal of an appointed representative is responsible, to the same extent as if he had expressly permitted it, for anything done or omitted by the representative in carrying on the business for which he has accepted responsibility.

F74

In determining whether an authorised person has complied with—

a

a provision contained in or made under this Act, or

b

a qualifying EU provision that is specified, or of a description specified, for the purposes of this subsection by the Treasury by order,

anything which a relevant person has done or omitted as respects business for which the authorised person has accepted responsibility is to be treated as having been done or omitted by the authorised person.

5

Relevant person” means a person who at the material time is or was an appointed representative by virtue of being a party to a contract with the authorised person.

6

Nothing in subsection (4) is to cause the knowledge or intentions of an appointed representative to be attributed to his principal for the purpose of determining whether the principal has committed an offence, unless in all the circumstances it is reasonable for them to be attributed to him.

F47

A person carries on “investment services business” if—

a

the business includes providing services or carrying on activities of the kind mentioned in Article 4.1.25 of the markets in financial instruments directive, and

b

as a result of providing such services or carrying on such activities he is a tied agent or would be if he were established in an EEA State.

8

In this section—

  • competent authority” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.22 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

  • credit institution” means—

    1. a

      a credit institution authorised under the F25capital requirements directive, or

    2. b

      an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its relevant office in an EEA State;

  • relevant office” means—

    1. a

      in relation to a body corporate, its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, and

    2. b

      in relation to a person other than a body corporate, the person's head office.

39AF5Certain tied agents operating outside United Kingdom

1

This section applies to an authorised person whose relevant office is in the United Kingdom if—

a

he is a party to a contract with a person (other than an authorised person) who is established—

i

in the United Kingdom, or

ii

in an EEA State which does not permit investment firms authorised by the competent authority of the State to appoint tied agents; and

b

the contract is a relevant contract.

2

A contract is a “relevant contract” if it satisfies conditions A to C.

3

Condition A is that the contract permits or requires the person mentioned in subsection (1)(a) (the “agent”) to carry on investment services business.

4

Condition B is that either—

a

it is a condition of the contract that such business may only be carried on by the agent in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or

b

in a case not falling within paragraph (a), the F24FCA is satisfied that no such business is, or is likely to be, carried on by the agent in the United Kingdom.

5

Condition C is that the business is of a description that, if carried on in the United Kingdom, would be prescribed for the purposes of section 39(1)(a)(i).

6

An authorised person to whom this section applies who—

a

enters into or continues to perform a relevant contract with an agent which does not comply with the applicable requirements,

b

enters into or continues to perform a relevant contract without accepting or having accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in carrying on investment services business,

c

enters into a relevant contract with an agent who is not entered on the record maintained by the F24FCA by virtue of section 347(1)(ha), or

d

continues to perform a relevant contract with an agent when he knows or ought to know that the agent is not entered on that record,

is to be taken for the purposes of this Act to have contravened a requirement imposed on him by or under this Act.

7

The “applicable requirements” are the requirements prescribed for the purposes of subsection (1)(a)(ii) of section 39 which have effect in the case of a person to whom subsection (1A) of that section applies.

8

A person carries on “investment services business” if—

a

his business includes providing services or carrying on activities of the kind mentioned in Article 4.1.25 of the markets in financial instruments directive, and

b

as a result of providing such services or carrying on such activities he is a tied agent.

9

In this section—

  • competent authority” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.22 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

  • relevant office” means—

    1. a

      in relation to a body corporate, its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, and

    2. b

      in relation to a person other than a body corporate, the person's head office.